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Hi all
“The Scepter of Judah
Near the end of the book of Genesis, Jacob, son of Isaac, blessed his twelve sons before he died. However, the blessing he pronounced upon his son Judah was more than just a blessing: it was a prophecy.
<span style=”color: #3366ff;”>“The scepter will not depart from Judah, nor the ruler’s staff from between his feet, until he to whom it belongs comes, and the obedience of the peoples shall be his” (Genesis 49:10).</span>
When we examine this passage, we discover the following:
“Shiloh” was a Jewish title for the promised Messiah. More specifically, Shiloh means “the one who brings” or “until he comes, to whom it belongs.” However, throughout the Jewish Scriptures, Shiloh is a term interpreted as a name for the Messiah (Savior).
Judah was the son of Jacob, but this name referred to also the southern kingdom of Israel. During the Jewish civil war that preceded the unification of the kingdom by King David, the ten northern tribes were known as Israel and the two southern tribes as Judah. Since Jerusalem was located in Judah, this name became synonymous with the political and religious center of the Jewish people.
“The scepter” and “the ruler’s staff” represented Judah’s authority to implement and enforce Jewish law, an authority embodied by the right to judge and administer capital punishment to its own people.
At the beginning of the first century CE, King Herod seized control of the Sanhedrin (the high priests and rabbis of the Jewish people) and, consequently, Israel’s power to inflict capital punishment on its own people. Jewish religious leaders saw this as a partial fulfillment of the prophecy in Genesis 49:10. However, as the The Messiah (Shiloh) had not yet come, and they publicly expressed their mourning.
“Woe to us, for the scepter has departed from Judah, and the Messiah has not come” (Babylonian Talmud, chapter 4, folio 37).
These Jewish leaders were far from suspecting that the Messiah, Jesus Christ, had been born in Bethlehem a few years earlier! At the time of their mourning, Shiloh was a young man growing up in the region of Galilee! In fact, biblical genealogies even attest that Jesus was of the lineage of Judah.
A few decades later, it became blatantly obvious that the Jewish religious leaders had lost the right to apply the capital letter under their own religious laws. During Jesus’ trial by Caiaphas, the high priest, and his council of teachers of the law, Caiaphas had to bring him before the Roman governor, Pontius Pilate. Pilate did not want to… Pilate wanted to get involved in the proceedings, but the Jews reminded him of the legal situation.
Pilate said, “Take him yourselves and judge him according to your own law.”
“But we are not allowed to put anyone to death,” the Jews objected (John 18:31).
And we know the rest of the story: Jesus was crucified on a Roman cross for the crime of blasphemy according to Jewish law.
👉Judah lost its national identity in 70 AD, when Rome destroyed Jerusalem (its capital) and the Jewish Temple. From then on, Judah ceased to exist as a nation, thus fulfilling the prophecy of Genesis 49:10. As we read in the New Testament, Jesus Christ had already revealed himself 👉as Shiloh (the Messiah) 👉 <span style=”color: #3366ff;”>BEFORE THE SCEPTER LEFT JUDA</span>. At the time of Judah’s final destruction, Jesus Christ had already completed his earthly ministry and had returned to the right hand of God.
🙏
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As we read in the New Testament, Jesus Christ had already revealed himself as Shiloh (the Messiah)
Except, the Jesus canNOT be The Messiah as he isn’t the descendant/seed of David and Solomon. Your NT explicitly states he was conceived by the spirit and NOT a man. G-d said the Messiah was to be of the line of David, how does no one see this?!?!? This alone renders the entire NT false and christianity worships a demigod!
If, as you claim, Jesus is a demi-god, half god/half human then, according to your idea, the human side of him would be biologically related to David. Therefore Jesus is a biological descendant of David’s own body even if Jesus was considered a demi-god which I do not agree with. And, being a descendant of David’s own body, he would be a relative to Solomon which the word “son” can merely mean relative even as a distant nephew. Jesus can also be a descendant of Solomon at the same time if he was adopted into the distant family of the royal line and thus qualify for the throne. Jesus is both a biological son of David and a legal descendant of the throne.
LU
If, as you claim, Jesus is a demi-god, half god/half human then, according to your idea, the human side of him would be biologically related to David.
Demigod: “A male being, often the offspring of a god and a mortal, who has some but not all of the powers of a god.” The Jesus was conceived by the spirit of G-d thru a mortal woman. Could heal the lame and sick, caste out demons, even raise the dead, and before he was killed, forgave sin; sounds like godlike qualities. By definition, the Jesus = demigod.
Concerning the “human side” (the woman) is irrelevant, tribal lineage didn’t go thru the mother it went thru the father and the Jesus’ father is the spirit, who is in no way a descendant of David AND Solomon. Did you not read the passages I gave you (2 Sam 7:12-17, I Chron 11-14)? Nathan has nothing to do with the lineage of The Messiah. You have been duped; read the text, it’s there in black and white.
Therefore Jesus is a biological descendant of David’s own body even if Jesus was considered a demi-god which I do not agree with. And, being a descendant of David’s own body, he would be a relative to Solomon which the word “son” can merely mean relative even as a distant nephew.
This is where reading and verifying is helpful; Nathan was the brother of Solomon and it was G-d who said the throne would be established thru David’s son Solomon, not a brother or “relative”, the direct descendant of Solomon.
Jesus can also be a descendant of Solomon at the same time if he was adopted into the distant family of the royal line and thus qualify for the throne.
Where does it talk about The Messiah being adopted??? Under Jewish customs, an adopted child is still associated with their birth father; they don’t change tribal lineage when adopted outside their father’s tribe.
Jesus is both a biological son of David and a legal descendant of the throne.
NOPE!!!! The Jesus’ daddy is the spirit and therefore isn’t associated with any tribe of Israel. Go back and read what was said in the Tanakh; quit relying on man’s interpretations or twisting of scripture to make the Jesus fit the narrative.
Better yet, PROVE the Jesus is The Messiah; there was no NT in the first century so all things related to The Messiah was written in the Tanakh.
In Jewish tradition, naming a child was closely tied to the father’s legal role, and biblical examples show that the act of naming was considered a paternal responsibility that established lineage and identity. Joseph named Jesus. Jesus is Joseph’s legal son and therefore Solomon’s lineage in the legal sense. Mary brings the biological aspect of David to Jesus. Jesus fulfills that requirement. The Messiah was to be born from a virgin. He couldn’t have had a biological father if He was to be born from a virgin. What an amazing fulfillment of prophecy. Scripture never says that the Messiah will come from Solomon’s own body, btw.
LU
You still aren’t reading the passages I have given you; reading them will fix every the pollution of christianity. Let’s go over what you wrote:
In Jewish tradition, naming a child was closely tied to the father’s legal role, and biblical examples show that the act of naming was considered a paternal responsibility that established lineage and identity. Joseph named Jesus.
Naming the child didn’t establish tribal lineage…who told you that?!?; the father being of a particular tribe established the tribe the son belonged to. The Jesus didn’t have a tribe; according to both Matthew and Luke the spirit of G-d conceived/fathered him. (Read Numbers 1:2,18 for your proof)
Jesus is Joseph’s legal son and therefore Solomon’s lineage in the legal sense.
G-d didn’t say in the “legal sense”, HE said in the biological sense. (Read 1 Chronicles 22:9-10, 2 Samuel 7:12-17). What I’ve found concerning adoption is “according to Jewish law the child is hereditarily tied to his (or her) biological parents. If the child’s biological father is a Cohen or Levi by Jewish tradition, and the child is a boy, so too must he accept these priestly customs.” (source). So even though Joseph “adopted” the child, the child would still be attached to the biological father’s tribe; thus, since the Jesus was NOT conceived by man, what tribal affiliation does he have…NONE! HIS DADDY IS THE SPIRIT OF G-D!!! The last time I checked G-d isn’t human.
Mary brings the biological aspect of David to Jesus. Jesus fulfills that requirement.
NOPE!! The woman has nothing to do with lineage; the people’s Jewishness, absolutely! (Read Ezra 10:1-19). The men who took foreign wives sent them away along with the children because the didn’t do as G-d commanded concerning who the men were to marry. The only thing the Jesus has going for him is he is Jewish.
Luke traces Joseph’s lineage back to King David through his son Nathan, Solomon’s step-brother. This would be like someone presently claiming the throne of England because he is a descendant of Andrew, the brother of King Charles, when the throne can only go through King Charles and in this particular case Charles’ son William and Prince Andrew is thrown to the curb and cannot serve as king because William has a son. This provides yet another reason Jesus cannot be the Messiah; How is it you don’t understand this?!?
The Messiah was to be born from a virgin.
What passage states that!!!! Isa 7:14?!??!!?? You may want to read the entire chapter and tell me again 7:14 is speaking of The Messiah! (hint: put the entire passage in context of what is happening in Judah and the “young woman” part isn’t even the prophecy, verse 16 is.) Oh but it says “virgin”; pull out your lexicon and look again what the word used actually is “almah.” Strong’s defines the word as “young woman” or “maiden.” The King Jimmy (NAS) has falsely translated this word to “virgin”; HOWEVER, Hebrew has a word for a woman who has never been with a man, “bethulah”, the same as the modern definition. Ask yourself why Isaiah used the word almah and not bethulah if he wanted his readers to understand the woman who was standing before them was a “virgin”? Once again you have been duped!
He couldn’t have had a biological father if He was to be born from a virgin.
Duh!! My point exactly! Not to Greek or Roman is it with all there demigods.
What an amazing fulfillment of prophecy. Scripture never says that the Messiah will come from Solomon’s own body, btw.
Ahhhh, Biological descendant, yes it does (Read 1 Chronicles 22:9-10, 2 Samuel 7:12-17). Believing the Jesus was conceived of a god is fitting for the times when Roman idolatry was the norm. You’re not really supporting your belief very well as you have provided zero scriptural proof.
@ DT
Your first BIG MISTAKE is believing, according to Genesis 1:26, that the person(s) to whom God speaks are angels.
Angels, good or bad, DO NOT HAVE THE POWER TO CREATE LIKE GOD.ONLY GOD THE FATHER AND HIS SON HAVE THIS POWER.
And if you doubt that God has a Son, reread these passages from Proverbs 8:22-30
Proverbs 30:4
and also regarding the prophecy about the nature of the Messiah: Micah 5
But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are few among the thousands of Judah, yet out of you shall come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from ancient times, from👉 everlasting times.You believe in a coming messiah, but Micah contradicts this. The Messiah’s origins go back to time immemorial.
1 Chronicles 22:9-10
9‘Behold, a son will be born to you, who shall be a man of rest; and I will give him rest from all his enemies on every side; for his name shall be Solomon, and I will give peace and quiet to Israel in his days. 10‘He shall build a house for My name, and he shall be My son and I will be his father; and I will establish the throne of his kingdom over Israel forever.’
This is about Solomon.
2 Samuel 7:12-17 12“When your days are complete and you lie down with your fathers, I will raise up your descendant after you, who will come forth from you, and I will establish his kingdom. 13“He shall build a house for My name, and I will establish the throne of his kingdom forever. 14“I will be a father to him and he will be a son to Me; when he commits iniquity, I will correct him with the rod of men and the strokes of the sons of men, 15but My lovingkindness shall not depart from him, as I took it away from Saul, whom I removed from before you. 16“Your house and your kingdom shall endure before Me forever; your throne shall be established forever.”’”
This is about Solomon.
Joseph names Jesus and is referred to as his parent. That is how we know that Joseph has taken the role of his human father.
LU
Your first BIG MISTAKE is believing, according to Genesis 1:26, that the person(s) to whom God speaks are angels. Angels, good or bad, DO NOT HAVE THE POWER TO CREATE LIKE GOD. ONLY GOD THE FATHER AND HIS SON HAVE THIS POWER.
If this is my “first BIG MISTAKE”, yours is believing the Jewish bible was meant for the christian world. Yours is believing phrases, taken out of context, somehow refer to the Jesus. Yours is believing the Jewish understanding of The Messiah is wrong and your belief is somehow right and points to the christian miracle worker. Yours is believing everything you are told without ever verifying it.
Concerning Gen 1:26 you may want to read the next verse where it was G-d, and only G-d, who did the creating and did it all without any assistance of another. There was NO “son” involved in the creation process and if there was another involved that means there are two gods and we now have polytheism. You’ll also have to provide the passage where the Jesus created anything.
And if you doubt that God has a Son, reread these passages from Proverbs 8:22-30, Proverbs 30:4
Neither of these passage allude to a “son” let alone provide proof of a Jesus. Since you believe they do, explain how! Won’t hold my breath as you have yet to explain anything.
also regarding the prophecy about the nature of the Messiah: Micah 5:2 “But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are few among the thousands of Judah, yet out of you shall come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from ancient times, from👉 everlasting times.”
You believe in a coming messiah, but Micah contradicts this. The Messiah’s origins go back to time immemorial.
Are you saying you understand the mind of a Jewish prophet better than the Jew does?!?! Micah came way after king David and the origins of this ruler is a reference to David. Read the next verse, this ruler in verse two is going to unite Israel again. When is the Jesus going to do this? This passage IS about a coming Messiah, but not your Jesus!
Here is the biblical Hebrew of 5:2 translated “But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, from you one will go out for Me to be ruler over Israel; and his origins are from ancient times, from days of old.” The phrase “from everlasting times” is a mistranslation and this creates the false narrative of pointing to the Jesus.
You have the tools today at your fingertips to verify what you have been taught is truth and the entire christian world refuses to do so. Makes absolutely no sense.
@ DT
Meanwhile, you’re not addressing Genesis 1:26. It’s either about angels or the Son of God.
God had a Son before the Christian era.
Proverbs 30: “Who has ascended into heaven and descended? Who has gathered the wind in his fists? Who has bound the waters in his garment? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and what is his son’s name, if you know?”Micah is undoubtedly speaking of the Messiah (ruler over Israel). In Micah’s time, speaking of a “ruler” who would come in the future and whose origins lie in the past could only refer to the eternal Son of God who is God in his nature.( The Angel of the Lord (Exodus 3) (Proverbs 8 and 30).
Explain what naming someone or being a parent to a child has to do with anything. You keep bringing this up as if it provides concrete proof for the Jesus being a decedent of Solomon. Did you skip reading what I provided in my last comment to you concerning adoption?
Adoption is allowed in Judaism; however, the only inheritance rights of the adopted child are those of tangible assets like property. Blood-rights, like tribal affiliation or priestly status, are only transmitted from biological father to biological son. Read again Numbers 1:2,18 & 2:2; it is G-d who commanded tribal association; are you denying what G-d said?
Since the Jesus doesn’t have a biological, earthly father, he isn’t associated with any tribe and as you read the above passages in Numbers it’s the father and only the father that passes on tribal affiliation. Therefore the Jesus can’t be The Messiah because there is NO tribal affiliation, his daddy is the spirit and NOT a man.
Verify it!
Meanwhile, you’re not addressing Genesis 1:26. It’s either about angels or the Son of God.
We have already had this conversation, mind you it was over a year ago; but still. Please READ the following:
Gen 1:26, Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; and let them rule over the fish of the sea and over the birds of the sky and over the cattle and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creeps on the earth.”
The plural form of the verb has been the subject of much discussion through the years, and not surprisingly several suggestions have been put forward. Many Christian theologians interpret it as an early hint of plurality within the Godhead, but this view imposes later trinitarian concepts on the ancient text. Some have suggested the plural verb indicates majesty, but the plural of majesty is not used with verbs. C. Westermann argues for a plural of “deliberation” here, but his proposed examples of this use (2Sam 24:14; Isa 6:8) do not actually support his theory. In 2Sam 24:14 David uses the plural as representative of all Israel, and in Isa 6:8 the LORD speaks on behalf of his heavenly court. In its ancient Israelite context the plural is most naturally understood as referring to God and his heavenly court (see 1Kgs 22:19-22; Job 1:6-12; 2:1-6; Isa 6:1-8). If this is the case, God invites the heavenly court to participate in the creation of humankind (perhaps in the role of offering praise, see Job 38:7), but he himself is the one who does the actual creative work (v. 27). Of course, this view does assume that the members of the heavenly court possess the divine “image” in some way. Since the image is closely associated with rulership, perhaps they share the divine image in that they, together with God and under his royal authority, are the executive authority over the world.
Not my words but from a christian commentary. Even the christian stance here is the “us” is a reference to angels. Support your belief with scripture.
God had a Son before the Christian era.
Proverbs 30: “Who has ascended into heaven and descended? Who has gathered the wind in his fists? Who has bound the waters in his garment? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and what is his son’s name, if you know?”
Deep breath, followed by a long sigh…do you understand this proverb? These are four questions asking for anyone who can do this. The answer to these questions is that there is no human being who could do such things. It is all the work of God. You somehow get the Jesus out of this?
Micah is undoubtedly speaking of the Messiah (ruler over Israel). In Micah’s time, speaking of a “ruler” who would come in the future and whose origins lie in the past could only refer to the eternal Son of God who is God in his nature.( The Angel of the Lord (Exodus 3) (Proverbs 8 and 30).
You are half way there, the passage does speak of a ruler that will come in the future whose origins are in the distant past; this is a reference to king David (this is your origin) from whom The Messiah will come. There is no “eternal son of G-d”; there is only G-d and he doesn’t exist in three persons, that would be polytheism. Until you take your Jesus goggles off, you will never see the truth; however, once you do, you can never unsee what you have seen.
Please explain how the “angel of the lord” is the Jesus and how Prov 8 is speaking of the Jesus (it’s about personified wisdom). If you cannot give scriptural support for this belief, why do you believe it? Which would mean you are following the words of man and not G-d.
to DT
Proverbs 30: “Who has ascended into heaven and descended? Who has gathered the wind in his fists? Who has bound the waters in his garment? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and what is his son’s name, if you know?”
YOU SAY
Deep breath, followed by a long sigh…do you understand this proverb? These are four questions asking for anyone who can do this. The answer to these questions is that there is no human being who could do such things. It is all the work of God. You somehow get the Jesus out of this?me
And then,
it is spoken here of God and his Son, it is not NOTHING.
YES GOD HAS A SON
WHY DENY IT, AND IT EXISTED BEFORE THE CREATION OF THIS EARTH.
This is confirmed in Proverbs 30 v.22/32it is spoken here of God and his Son
Where?!?!?
Prov 30:22 “under a slave when he becomes king, and a fool when he is satisfied with food;”
Prov 30:32 “If you have been foolish by exalting yourself, and if you have devised evil, put your hand to your mouth.”
You get the Jesus out of these two passages…WOW!!!! Tell me you quoted the wrong ones!
You haven’t provided a passage that says G-d has a “divine son” or that this “son” existed before creation. All you’re spewing is christian lies; give me biblical truth!
Me
This is about God and his Son.
You
Where?!?!?
Me
Who ascended into heaven, and who descended? Who gathered the wind in his fists? Who wrapped the waters in a garment? Who established all the ends of the earth? 👉What is his name, and what is 👉the name of his Son, if you know?
Then you don’t understand the passage! With your Jesus goggles on, you will never see the truth.
Judaism and christianity are not compatible, they don’t have the same messiah; Judaism has a messiah who will unite the world, bringing peace to all nations, and all serving one G-d; The Messiah, when he comes, will be a human king in David’s fashion and lineage, except better. None have provided the passage from the Tanakh stating believing in The Messiah brings salvation or where G-d says he has a “son” he would sacrifice for the sins of mankind.
Christianity has a miracle worker who didn’t fulfill anything that was spoken The Messiah would do, has admittedly said he was going to divide, bring judgment on the world, and it will be only those who believe in him that will be “saved”, AND after his reign on earth (millennial reign), destruction will come again to test if you truly follow the Jesus. How absurd!!!
I have asked over and over again to prove the Jesus is The Messiah spoken of in the Tanakh and not one on this site has done it; all I get are deflections that are off topic or one stops responding when additional questions are asked. Christians do know how to parrot the words of others, take verses out of context and twist them to fit the Jesus narrative, and push your religions doctrines and beliefs; showing one follows the religions of man and NOT G-d. Prov 30:4 is a prime example, it says father and son in the same sentence so it MUST be a reference to G-d and the Jesus.
No one verifies anything even though we now have the tools at our literal fingertips; one prefers blindly accepting everything they are told, either out of fear or laziness. You take the Jesus, I’ll take G-d.
@DT
The truth is in the Bible .(Proverbs )
It is about God who is the only true God and his only begotten Son.
Psams 2
10] Be wise now therefore, O ye kings: be instructed, ye judges of the earth.
[11] Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling.
[12] 👉Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and ye perish from the way👈, when 👉his wrath is kindled but a little. 👉Blessed are all they that put their trust in him.(the Son)👈🙏
Again, you have the power of study at your literal fingertips, resources beyond what any generation has ever had access to, and you choose instead to rely on what you have been told.
Once again you have proven nothing of the Jesus being The Messiah. The “son” is a reference to a king appointed by G-d and a better understanding of this the term “kiss” is to pay homage/respect to this “son” (verse 7). The one who will get angry is G-d (continuation from verse 11), because respect wasn’t shown to his anointed king and if G-d gets angry can one survive even the smallest amount of G-d’s anger?? HOWEVER, when one places their trust in G-d, they are blessed.
Christian commentary:
“In this royal psalm the author asserts the special status of the divinely chosen Davidic king and warns the nations and their rulers to submit to the authority of God and his chosen vice-regent.”
“In the context of the psalm, this line is a warning to those who oppose God’s will, reminding them that His anger can be quickly kindled, but those who seek refuge in Him will be blessed.”
The “Davidic king” in the first commentary can’t be the Jesus, because this is a warning to nations and their rulers to submit to this king; the Jesus was only known in the Galilean region not to nations. AND when the Jesus “returns” it will be to late for those to submit; so it doesn’t fit the second coming narrative. It’s possible this passage could refer to THE Messiah and would definitely fit better than it referring to the Jesus since The Messiah will unite the world and could be used as a word of caution to those who would come against The Messiah; but that would be reading into the passage verses what is plainly written. Especially since the book of Psalms was book of songs to be sung in the Temple and would have then been written for and about that time period.
Waiting for the passages that state G-d has a “son” HE was going to sacrifice for the sins of mankind.
@ DT
“The one who will get angry is G-d (continuation from verse 11), because respect wasn’t shown to his anointed king and if G-d gets angry can one survive even the smallest amount of G-d’s anger?? HOWEVER, when one places their trust in G-d, they are hurt”
me
Sorry, I think you’re way too biasedthe text:
A)👉 (11] Serve the LORD(God) with fear, and rejoice with trembling.
B)👉 (12] Kiss the Son, lest he(the Son) be angry(Son’s angry), and 👉ye perish from the way, when his wrath(Son’s wrath) is kindled but a little. Blessed are all they that put their trust in him.(The Son)
And there is a correspondence in the new testament, (even 2)
👇
Rev.6:15] And the kings of the earth, and the great men, and the rich men, and the chief captains, and the mighty men, and every bondman, and every free man, hide themselves in the dens and in the rocks of the mountains;
[16] And said to the mountains and rocks, Fall on us, and hide us from the face of him that sits on the throne, and from👉 the wrath of the Lamb (Messiah,):👈
[17] For the great day of his 👉wrath has come;👈 and who shall be able to stand?Rev.29:11] And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war.
[12] His eyes were like a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself.
[13] And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God.
[14] And the armies which were in heaven followed him upon white horses, clothed in fine linen, white and clean.
[15] And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and 👉he shall rule them with a rod of iron:👈(see psalm2:9a) and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God.
[16] And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING OF KINGS, AND LORD OF LORDS.You think I’m “biased”; have you paid attention to christianities beliefs? You seem to forget, for 40 years I was in christianity; I know the christian talking points. Remember, when I first joined we spared over christian doctrines and beliefs and NOT actual truths.
Anyways, Psalm 2:12 seems to be the sticking point because it says “son”; after digging into this more I found some interesting information. The word “son” is “bar” which is Aramaic; however, in Hebrew, “bar” has the meaning of “purity” or “sincerity.” Why would the Psalm that is written in Hebrew suddenly switch to Aramaic for a single word? The Jewish translators who translated the Tanakh into Greek (the Septuagint around 200 BCE) translated the phrase as “embrace instruction” not “kiss the son.” The Targum, rabbis, and medieval Jewish commentators all translate the phrase as a call to give “pure homage” or “sincere submission” to G-d.
The word “kiss” in ancient cultures often meant to pay homage or sincere submission to a king or deity; such as in I Sam 10:1 when Samuel anoints Saul and kisses him, in Hosea 13:2 he speaks of those “kissing the calves”, and in I Kings 19:18 where Elijah says, “Every mouth that has not kissed him [Baal].” So when putting these two concepts together we get “kiss in purity”; and it fits both the Hebraic understanding and historical context of when it was written.
What doesn’t fit is the christian interpretation “kiss the son” as it doesn’t follow the Hebrew grammar or the times of when it was written. It would seem it was changed to make it sound prophetic of the Jesus when it never was meant to…more corruption of the christian faith.
Waiting for the passages that state G-d has a “son” HE was going to sacrifice for the sins of mankind.
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