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The proclamation that for “us”, we have one God and one Lord, seems to tie back to the fact that YHVH is the God of gods and the Lord of lords, two persons.
1 Cor 8: 5-6
5For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many so-called gods and lords), 6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.
Deut 10:17
17For the LORD your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great, mighty, and awesome God, showing no partiality and accepting no bribe.
Any thoughts?
Blessings, LU
Hi Lightenup
I’m quite happy to see you back on the forum and that you now have time to discuss biblical truth.
Eph.4
[1] I therefore, the prisoner of the Lord, beseech you that ye walk worthy of the vocation wherewith ye are called,
[2] With all lowliness and meekness, with longsuffering, forbearing one another in love;
[3] Endeavouring to keep the unity of the Spirit in the bond of peace.
[4] There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling;
[5] One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
[6] One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.The “one Lord” is Jesus Christ and the “one God” is the Father of Jesus Christ.
This is that I believe.
Have a good day.
Hi Berean,
I’m happy to see you as well. I appreciate your kind words.
I agree with what you wrote. Do you agree that Deut 10:17 could be mentioning two persons as YHWH, God of gods and Lord of lords, in light of there being one God and one Lord as mentioned in the NT?
Deut 10:17 For He, your God YHWH, [is] God of the gods and Lord of the lords—the great, the mighty, and the fearful God, who does not accept by appearances, nor takes a bribe;
Blessings, LU
Do you agree that Deut 10:17 could be mentioning two persons as YHWH, God of gods and Lord of lords, in light of there being one God and one Lord as mentioned in the NT?
Hi LU
NO
In Deuteronomy 10:17,
the GOD of gods and the Lord of lords is the Father of Jesus.
But I do not forget that God, the Father of Jesus, did everything (and still does) with and through his own Son.
In fact, THE SON OF GOD SHARES THE SAME DIVINE ATTRIBUTES AS GOD THE FATHER.
He is THE WORD OF GOD (John 1)
and also what Isaiah says in 9:6
…and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The Mighty God, The Everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.🙏
Thanks for your answer. This might be an interesting discussion. I asked GROK this question:
Is it possible that Jesus is the Lord of lords in Deuteronomy 10:17
Here is the answer it gave me:
Yes, from a Christian theological perspective, it is possible—and indeed a common interpretation—that Jesus is identified with the “Lord of lords” described in Deuteronomy 10:17. Here’s a concise breakdown:
### Context of Deuteronomy 10:17
– This verse is part of Moses’ exhortation to the Israelites, affirming Yahweh (the God of Israel) as supreme: “For the Lord your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great God, mighty and awesome, who shows no partiality and accepts no bribes” (NIV).
– In its original Jewish context, this title emphasizes God’s unrivaled sovereignty over all powers, idols, and rulers (echoed in similar phrasing in Psalm 136:2–3 and Daniel 2:47).### Christian Interpretation Linking to Jesus
– Early and modern Christian scholars often see this as a foreshadowing or typological reference to Jesus, based on New Testament applications of similar titles to him:
– **Revelation 17:14** and **19:16** explicitly call Jesus “Lord of lords and King of kings,” directly paralleling Deuteronomy’s language. For instance, Revelation 19:16 describes the risen Christ as “KING OF KINGS AND LORD OF LORDS” (all caps in many translations for emphasis).
– The Apostle Paul in **1 Timothy 6:15** applies “King of kings and Lord of lords” to Jesus, portraying him as the eternal sovereign who will judge the world.
– This aligns with the doctrine of the Trinity, where Jesus (the Son) shares the divine essence with the Father (Yahweh). Theologians like Augustine and modern commentators (e.g., in the ESV Study Bible) argue that Old Testament descriptions of God’s lordship find their fullest expression in Christ’s incarnation, death, and exaltation.
– Substantiation: The New Testament authors, writing in a Jewish milieu, frequently apply Yahweh’s titles to Jesus (e.g., Isaiah 45:23 in Philippians 2:10–11; Psalm 110:1 in Hebrews 1:13), suggesting they viewed him as the divine agent of God’s rule.### Counterperspectives
– From a Jewish viewpoint (e.g., as articulated by rabbis like Rashi), this verse strictly refers to the one, indivisible God of Israel, with no messianic or trinitarian implications—Jesus would not fit as a separate divine figure.
– Unitarian or non-trinitarian Christians might limit it to God the Father alone.In summary, if one accepts the Christian framework of Jesus’ divinity (supported by NT texts), then yes—it’s not only possible but a deliberate theological connection. If you’re exploring this from a specific tradition, more details could refine the discussion!
Any thing that you disagree with in that Berean?
Furthermore, as a follow up question, I asked GROK this for your benefit as an SDA:
Is it possible that Ellen White would believe that Jesus is the Lord of lords in Deuteronomy 10:17?
GROK’s reply:
Yes, it is possible that Ellen White would believe Jesus is the “Lord of lords” described in Deuteronomy 10:17. As a co-founder of Seventh-day Adventism, she affirmed Jesus’ full divinity and identification with Yahweh (the LORD in the Old Testament), the eternal God who holds supreme titles like this one. Deuteronomy 10:17 describes Yahweh as “God of gods and Lord of lords,” a phrase echoed in the New Testament for Jesus (e.g., Revelation 19:16, where He is “King of kings and Lord of lords”). White’s writings consistently equate Jesus with this divine identity, portraying Him as the preexistent Jehovah who shares God’s authority and essence. For instance, she described Jesus as revealing the Father’s character with divine sovereignty, equal in power and worthy of the same worship as God. While she emphasized the Father’s headship, she upheld Jesus’ deity, making it consistent for her to apply Old Testament Yahweh titles to Him as the incarnate God.
Any thoughts?
LU
@DesireTtuth
Feel free to examine what is written and give any thoughtful wisdom in response that the LORD gives you.
Blessings,
LU
The proclamation that for “us”, we have one God and one Lord, seems to tie back to the fact that YHVH is the God of gods and the Lord of lords, two persons.
It means what it says:
There is one Theos AND One Kyrios.
And it is obvious that the Father is God and Jesus is Lord.
5For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many so-called gods and lords), 6yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we exist. And there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things came and through whom we exist.
Same again. The Father is God.
Further, God made Jesus Lord.
Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly that God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.
In conclusion, the true faith teaches that the Father of the Lord Jesus Christ is God and the Most High God has a Son who is Yeshua / Jesus.
Jesus is the Son of the Almighty God.
Your original statement of G-d being “two persons” is false (some will say three – that trinity thing…huge false). I don’t understand how you come to that conclusion quoting Deut 10:17. This passage states G-d is G-d and Lord (don’t throw out the conjunction) and when read in context (verses 12-22) HE is telling Israel they are to love HIM and other people (the foreigner).
What is your question?
I think your biggest mistake is your trying to merge the NT with the Tanakh (OT) and it doesn’t work. For others to say the Jesus is “lord” spoken of in the passage is also false because they’ve tossed the conjunction out. G-d is one, not two and definitely NOT three; what does Deut 6:4 say: “…The Lord our G-d is one Lord.” Did you catch “G-d” and “Lord” in the same sentence and HE is one?
Test, question, and verify everything.
You wrote:
And it is obvious that the Father is God and Jesus is Lord.
Let’s start here:
In the OT, what is the proper name of the God and Lord in Deuteronomy 10:17?
@LU
You. There are a couple of responses here for you. Could you please address them?
Me
Réponses to what questions?
🙏
This question “Any thing that you disagree with in that Berean?”
And this question: “Any thoughts?
These questions relate to two posts above here directed to you.
LU
Let’s start here:
There is a theme of unity throughout scripture. Do you agree?
Unity in relation to what? Please be more specific.
Hi LU
Deut. 17:10 does not refer to the Son of God.
The Son of God is, in the Old Testament, THE ANGEL OF THE LORD. (Exodus 3:2)
See https://quod.lib.umich.edu/cgi/k/kjv/kjv-idx?type=simple&format=Long&q1=angel+of+the+Lord&restrict=Old+Testament&size=All
🙏Let’s start here:
In the OT, what is the proper name of the God and Lord in Deuteronomy 10:17?
YHWH. Jesus is Lord means: Jesus is Kyrios.
Kyrios: “master,” “owner,” “sovereign,” or “lord.”
It’s a title, not a name, and could refer to:A human master (e.g. “lord of the vineyard” in Matthew 20:8)
A respected person (“sir”)
A false god or idol
It can also be used to refer to God.Think about it. At some point you may have had a landlord. This doesn’t mean that this person was divine, but that he / she had authority in this area only. In scripture, a jailer calls Paul and Silas kyrios: “Sirs (kurioi), what must I do to be saved?”
So the word has a range, but clearly it isn’t always talking about YHWH. It can also be used as a respectful form of address, not divine.
Now we read this in scripture:
Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Clearly, this does not mean that Theos has made Jesus YHWH.
The above gives us the context of Jesus Christ as Lord.
Cherry picking YHWH is not only bias, but it breaks the scripture to such a point that not even you would believe that God made Jesus Christ YHWH right? It is basically saying this:
God (Theos) has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Kyrios (Lord/YHWH) and Christos (Messiah).
It’s real simple:
For us there is one theos, the Father and one Kyrios, the Lord Jesus Christ.
And who is us? Those that are disciples of God and His Son.
For others, there is three theos, the Father, Son, Holy Spirit.
From whence does this doctrine come? From Babylon.
Yes, the proper name of God and Lord in Deut 10:17 is YHWH.
You wrote:
Therefore let all Israel be assured of this: God has made this Jesus, whom you crucified, both Lord and Christ.
Let’s see several other things in Hebrews 1 alone that God identified Jesus as:
- The heir of all things, and through whom He made the universe. Heb 1:2
- The radiance of God’s glory and the exact representation of His nature, upholding all things by His powerful word. Heb 1:3
- One to be worshipped by all angels. Heb 1:8-9
- YHWH who laid the foundations of the earth. Heb 1:10a
- The heavens are the work of His hands. Heb 1:10b
- The YHWH who will roll up the heavens and earth like a robe. Heb 1:12
Don’t forget those above “cherries that you left hanging on the tree” that show some more ways that God identified Jesus. See Psalm 102 for reference since it was quoted in Heb 1.
LU
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