JOHN 1:1 who is the WORD?

[jammin]

Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 28 2012,10:38)

Jammin, I read that the Word of God is what comes out of the mouth of God because words are spoken, written, acted on, and thought.  I am literally interpreting John 1:1 because I know from the account of creation that God and his Spirit were both present and that both are the manifestation of the literal Word of God. While I understand the word “Word” in John 1:1 literally you chose to believe it symbolizes a being that would be named Jesus.  I challenge the grounds to your belief.  You correctly claim that Jesus is called the Word of God but you fail to understand the reason even though he is also called Faithful and True.  He personalizes the ideas of being faithful and true just like he personalizes God’s Word.  John 1:14 is where John writes of the Word personalizes in the human being Jesus.

i dont need your opinion. read that in john 1.1

read that john says that the WORD in john 1.1 comes out of the mouth of GOD.

[jammin]

btw, elijah is not the topic here my friends.

[NickHassan]

Quote (terraricca @ Feb. 28 2012,13:41)

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,20:25) Hi T, Your judgement is noted. Tell me of the Spirit in Elijah and John or were they speaking of their own spirit? N that question as no sense ,we all know that Elijah was Gods prophet and we also know that John the Baptist was Gods prophet but they are two different prophets , and yes they both spoke the words of their God

Hi T,
So both were of the Spirit of God and somehow they shared that pouring of the Spirit.
Just as we share the pouring of the Spirit as the Spirit of Christ.

[terraricca]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,21:32)

Quote (terraricca @ Feb. 28 2012,13:41) Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,20:25) Hi T, Your judgement is noted. Tell me of the Spirit in Elijah and John or were they speaking of their own spirit? N that question as no sense ,we all know that Elijah was Gods prophet and we also know that John the Baptist was Gods prophet but they are two different prophets , and yes they both spoke the words of their God Hi T, So both were of the Spirit of God and somehow they shared that pouring of the Spirit. Just as we share the pouring of the Spirit as the Spirit of Christ.

N

no ,it is not what I say but your interpretation,

see they both were mere man sinners born in sin but righteous men ,for this God use them for his purpose and informed them with words to be given to others ,

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,09:22)

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 27 2012,08:39) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 27 2012,17:24) Quote (david @ Feb. 27 2012,11:32) Jammin, doesn't “Christ” or “messiah” literally mean “anointed one.” Didn't he in fact become the anointed one (Christ) when he was anointed with holy spirit? Yes David, Jesus was born the “Son of God” and became “the Christ” at Jordan. you cant read that you cant read that he became christ at jordan. that's not what the bible says. GOD did not say you became christ now here at the jordan river. it is just your illusion my friend. jammin is spot on with this point. Luke 2:11 says Jesus was BORN the Christ.  Luke 2:25-32 tells about a man named Simeon.  God promised this man he would not die before seeing God's Christ.  After seeing the 8 day old Jesus, Simeon thanked God for keeping His promise, and said he could now be dismissed (die) in peace. How could God have already KEPT His promise to Simeon about letting him see the Christ before he died if Jesus wasn't the Christ at the moment Simeon got to see him? And as jammin points out, you cannot read from scripture that Christ BECAME the Christ at the Jordan.  You cannot read that God said, “NOW you're the Christ” at the Jordan. This is one of those popular thoughts that many people just take for granted.  But I'm unaware of any scripture that says Jesus became “Christ” at the Jordan.  And considering that I just listed two scriptures that say he was Christ long before the Jordan, I'd say it's one of those popular thoughts that these same many people ought to let die.  There is no scriptural proof FOR it, and there is scriptural proof AGAINST it. jammin, there is also no scriptural evidence that Jesus wasn't already named Jesus in heaven before he was made into the likeness of a human being.

Hi Mike / Jammin,

             Understand how Prophecy works (spiritual eyes)

        “The Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.” (Rev 13:8)

Rom. 4:17-18 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,)
before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead,
and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations,
according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 28 2012,12:52)

Hi T, So do you agree with MB that Elijah did not speak by the Holy Ghost? What about John?

Hi Nick, SPOT on!

    Elijah means “YHVH IS GOD”(117) (Spirit of GOD=117)

Elijah did speak by the HolySpirit and so did John the Baptist.

    “Spirit of GOD” is used 26 times: GOD=26 / יהוה=26

                                 God's Signature  
                                Proof of God=117
GOD(26) → The Bible(63) → AKJV Bible(74) → The LORD JEHOVAH(151)

        יהוה=26 (God's Name: YHVH pronounced YÄ-hä-vā)
        YHVH=63 (God's Name יהוה translated into English)
        Jesus=74 (God's Son's name in English is: “Joshua”)
        HolySpirit=151 (“FATHER: The Word”: in all believers)
        God The Father=117 (Representing “GOD”: יהוה האלהים)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,13:01)

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 27 2012,18:35) Hi Mb, The Word was God. The Spirit of Christ is of the Spirit of God So “GOD” became “NOT GOD”?

Hi Mike,                 BINGO!   …I knew it was only a matter of time!   (a “Paradox”)

                “I will open my mouth in a parable: I will utter dark sayings of old:” (Psalms 78:2)

Luke 18:1-8 And he spake a parable unto them to this end, that men ought always to pray, and not to faint; Saying,
There was in a city a judge, which feared not God, neither regarded man: And there was a widow(see Psalm 68:4-5)
in that city; and she came unto him, saying, Avenge me of mine adversary. And he would not for a while: but afterward  
he said within himself, Though I fear not God, nor regard man; Yet because this widow troubleth me, I will avenge her,
lest by her continual coming she weary me. And the Lord said, Hear what the unjust judge saith. And shall  not God
avenge his own elect, which cry day and night unto him, though he bear long with them?
I tell you that he will avenge them speedily. Nevertheless when the Son of man cometh, shall he find faith on the earth?

1Corinthians 1:19-21 For it is written, I will destroy the wisdom of the wise, and will bring to nothing the understanding of the prudent.
Where is the wise? where is the scribe? where is the disputer of this world? hath not God made foolish the wisdom of this world? For after
that in the wisdom of God the world by wisdom knew not God, it pleased God by the foolishness of preaching to save them that believe.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
(Trinity and non-Trinity, can both views be correct?)     <– Another Paradox

[jammin]

Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 28 2012,17:59)

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,09:22) Quote (jammin @ Feb. 27 2012,08:39) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 27 2012,17:24) Quote (david @ Feb. 27 2012,11:32) Jammin, doesn't “Christ” or “messiah” literally mean “anointed one.” Didn't he in fact become the anointed one (Christ) when he was anointed with holy spirit? Yes David, Jesus was born the “Son of God” and became “the Christ” at Jordan. you cant read that you cant read that he became christ at jordan. that's not what the bible says. GOD did not say you became christ now here at the jordan river. it is just your illusion my friend. jammin is spot on with this point. Luke 2:11 says Jesus was BORN the Christ.  Luke 2:25-32 tells about a man named Simeon.  God promised this man he would not die before seeing God's Christ.  After seeing the 8 day old Jesus, Simeon thanked God for keeping His promise, and said he could now be dismissed (die) in peace. How could God have already KEPT His promise to Simeon about letting him see the Christ before he died if Jesus wasn't the Christ at the moment Simeon got to see him? And as jammin points out, you cannot read from scripture that Christ BECAME the Christ at the Jordan.  You cannot read that God said, “NOW you're the Christ” at the Jordan. This is one of those popular thoughts that many people just take for granted.  But I'm unaware of any scripture that says Jesus became “Christ” at the Jordan.  And considering that I just listed two scriptures that say he was Christ long before the Jordan, I'd say it's one of those popular thoughts that these same many people ought to let die.  There is no scriptural proof FOR it, and there is scriptural proof AGAINST it. jammin, there is also no scriptural evidence that Jesus wasn't already named Jesus in heaven before he was made into the likeness of a human being. Hi Mike / Jammin,              Understand how Prophecy works (spiritual eyes)         “The Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.” (Rev 13:8) Rom. 4:17-18 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be. God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

hi edj,

no more explanations.
you gave wrong meaning in eph 6.17 and that is enough.

you should study the verse well before making conclusion

[kerwin]

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 28 2012,09:10)

Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 28 2012,10:38) Jammin, I read that the Word of God is what comes out of the mouth of God because words are spoken, written, acted on, and thought.  I am literally interpreting John 1:1 because I know from the account of creation that God and his Spirit were both present and that both are the manifestation of the literal Word of God. While I understand the word “Word” in John 1:1 literally you chose to believe it symbolizes a being that would be named Jesus.  I challenge the grounds to your belief.  You correctly claim that Jesus is called the Word of God but you fail to understand the reason even though he is also called Faithful and True.  He personalizes the ideas of being faithful and true just like he personalizes God’s Word.  John 1:14 is where John writes of the Word personalizes in the human being Jesus. i dont need your opinion. read that in john 1.1 read that john says that the WORD in john 1.1 comes out of the mouth of GOD.

Jammin,

As for the definition of Word being an opinion I do not believe that is what it is called.  

Strong's Number:   3056

Quote

the sayings of God decree, mandate or order of the moral precepts given by God

Perhaps instead you mean my choice of a literal interpretation that I chose based on the account of creation in the book of Genesis.

[kerwin]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,08:00)

Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 27 2012,18:27) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,05:50) Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 27 2012,17:38) While I understand the word “Word” in John 1:1 literally you chose to believe it symbolizes a being that would be named Jesus.  I challenge the grounds to your belief. Well, this particular Word became flesh, Kerwin.  And not only did HE (the Greek word used) become flesh, but when HE did, HE had the glory of God's only begotten Son, the sandals of whom John was unfit to untie. Later in the chapter, John lists the person whose sandals he was unfit to untie as “JESUS”. Mike, Logos is a masculine noun and the correct pronoun to represent it is also masculine. That's right, Kerwin.  And it is often used to refer to a MALE PERSON, right?

Mike,

As far as I understand the Ancient Greeks left the actual gender inferred but my understanding is based on what I have read.

[Ed J]

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 28 2012,18:43)

Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 28 2012,17:59) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 28 2012,09:22) Quote (jammin @ Feb. 27 2012,08:39) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 27 2012,17:24) Quote (david @ Feb. 27 2012,11:32) Jammin, doesn't “Christ” or “messiah” literally mean “anointed one.” Didn't he in fact become the anointed one (Christ) when he was anointed with holy spirit? Yes David, Jesus was born the “Son of God” and became “the Christ” at Jordan. you cant read that you cant read that he became christ at jordan. that's not what the bible says. GOD did not say you became christ now here at the jordan river. it is just your illusion my friend. jammin is spot on with this point. Luke 2:11 says Jesus was BORN the Christ.  Luke 2:25-32 tells about a man named Simeon.  God promised this man he would not die before seeing God's Christ.  After seeing the 8 day old Jesus, Simeon thanked God for keeping His promise, and said he could now be dismissed (die) in peace. How could God have already KEPT His promise to Simeon about letting him see the Christ before he died if Jesus wasn't the Christ at the moment Simeon got to see him? And as jammin points out, you cannot read from scripture that Christ BECAME the Christ at the Jordan.  You cannot read that God said, “NOW you're the Christ” at the Jordan. This is one of those popular thoughts that many people just take for granted.  But I'm unaware of any scripture that says Jesus became “Christ” at the Jordan.  And considering that I just listed two scriptures that say he was Christ long before the Jordan, I'd say it's one of those popular thoughts that these same many people ought to let die.  There is no scriptural proof FOR it, and there is scriptural proof AGAINST it. jammin, there is also no scriptural evidence that Jesus wasn't already named Jesus in heaven before he was made into the likeness of a human being. Hi Mike / Jammin,              Understand how Prophecy works (spiritual eyes)         “The Lamb slain from the foundation of the world.” (Rev 13:8) Rom. 4:17-18 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be. God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org hi edj, no more explanations. you gave wrong meaning in eph 6.17 and that is enough. you should study the verse well before making conclusion

Hi Jammin,

Acts 5:39 But if it be of God, ye cannot overthrow it;
lest haply ye be found even to fight against God.
My last post was about Jordan NOT Eph.6.17.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[jammin]

you gave the verse ep 6.17 to prove that the holy spirit is the word in john 1.1
but it is very clear that your interpretation is wrong. so you do not need to do more explanation edj

better luck next time

[jammin]

Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 28 2012,18:59)

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 28 2012,09:10) Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 28 2012,10:38) Jammin, I read that the Word of God is what comes out of the mouth of God because words are spoken, written, acted on, and thought.  I am literally interpreting John 1:1 because I know from the account of creation that God and his Spirit were both present and that both are the manifestation of the literal Word of God. While I understand the word “Word” in John 1:1 literally you chose to believe it symbolizes a being that would be named Jesus.  I challenge the grounds to your belief.  You correctly claim that Jesus is called the Word of God but you fail to understand the reason even though he is also called Faithful and True.  He personalizes the ideas of being faithful and true just like he personalizes God’s Word.  John 1:14 is where John writes of the Word personalizes in the human being Jesus. i dont need your opinion. read that in john 1.1 read that john says that the WORD in john 1.1 comes out of the mouth of GOD. Jammin, As for the definition of Word being an opinion I do not believe that is what it is called.   ”Strong's wrote: the sayings of God decree, mandate or order of the moral precepts given by God Perhaps instead you mean my choice of a literal interpretation that I chose based on the account of creation in the book of Genesis.

do not explain kerwin.
read to me in john 1.1 that john says that the WORD is what comes out of the mouth of GOD.

can you read it or not?

[Ed J]

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 28 2012,21:01)

you gave the verse ep 6.17 to prove that the holy spirit is the word in john 1.1 but it is very clear that your interpretation is wrong. so you do not need to do more explanation edj better luck next time

Hi Jammin, No luck or explanation needed!   …ONLY a highlighter!

“The word's” that I speak unto you, they “are Spirit” (John 6:63)

“the sword of “The Spirit”, which is “The word” of God.” (Eph 6:17)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

John 4:24 God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth.

[jammin]

you are so hard headed edj

let me post eph 6.17 in greek

καὶ τὴν περικεφαλαίαν τοῦ σωτηρίου δέξασθε, καὶ τὴν μάχαιραν τοῦ πνεύματος, ὅ ἐστιν ῥῆμα θεοῦ,

the greek word is rema means declaration
refers to the “teaching”
Ephesians 6:17

Easy-to-Read Version (ERV)
17 Accept God’s salvation as your helmet. And take the sword of the Spirit—that sword is the “teaching” of God.

let me post john 1.1

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.

the greek word is logos. it refers to the name or title of christ. he is called the WORD or WORD of GOD.(rev 19.13)

better luck next time

[Ed J]

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 28 2012,23:23)

you are so hard headed edj let me post eph 6.17 in greek καὶ τὴν περικεφαλαίαν τοῦ σωτηρίου δέξασθε, καὶ τὴν μάχαιραν τοῦ πνεύματος, ὅ ἐστιν ῥῆμα θεοῦ, the greek word is rema means declaration refers to the “teaching” Ephesians 6:17 Easy-to-Read Version (ERV) 17 Accept God’s salvation as your helmet. And take the sword of the Spirit—that sword is the “teaching” of God. let me post john 1.1 Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. the greek word is logos. it refers to the name or title of christ. he is called the WORD or WORD of GOD.(rev 19.13) better luck next time

Hi Jammin,

                                  Ho Logos = Spirit

You posting Greek doesn't make you the oracle of truth.    …LOOSE THE 'TUDE.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[NickHassan]

Good point Jammin,
Logos and Rhema are different.

[Ed J]

Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 29 2012,04:25)

Good point Jammin, Logos and Rhema are different.

Hi Nick,

Rhema is a short snippet of spoken or written truth of God.
Logos is a complete idea spoken or written truth of God.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[kerwin]

Quote (jammin @ Feb. 28 2012,16:03)

Quote (kerwin @ Feb. 28 2012,18:59) Quote (jammin @ Feb. 28 2012,09:10) kerwin,Feb. wrote: Jammin, I read that the Word of God is what comes out of the mouth of God because words are spoken, written, acted on, and thought.  I am literally interpreting John 1:1 because I know from the account of creation that God and his Spirit were both present and that both are the manifestation of the literal Word of God. While I understand the word “Word” in John 1:1 literally you chose to believe it symbolizes a being that would be named Jesus.  I challenge the grounds to your belief.  You correctly claim that Jesus is called the Word of God but you fail to understand the reason even though he is also called Faithful and True.  He personalizes the ideas of being faithful and true just like he personalizes God’s Word.  John 1:14 is where John writes of the Word personalizes in the human being Jesus. i dont need your opinion. read that in john 1.1 read that john says that the WORD in john 1.1 comes out of the mouth of GOD. Jammin, As for the definition of Word being an opinion I do not believe that is what it is called.   <!–QuoteBegin–"Strong's Number:   3056"]the sayings of God decree+mandate or order of the moral precepts given by God [/quote–> Quote (“Strong's Number:   3056”]the sayings of God decree @ mandate or order of the moral precepts given by God [/quote) Perhaps instead you mean my choice of a literal interpretation that I chose based on the account of creation in the book of Genesis. do not explain kerwin. read to me in john 1.1 that john says that the WORD is what comes out of the mouth of GOD. can you read it or not?

Jammin,

I assume that you do not agree that the correct definition of Word as used in John 1:1 is “the sayings of God, decree, mandate or order of the moral precepts given by God ” I am not sure your reasons for that conclusions except that it opposes what you have been taught.

Without getting caught up in a vain argument about the exact meaning of a particular passage, do you believe that both God and his Spirit personify (embody in their person) the order of moral precepts given by God? Do you agree that the Spirit of God was with God in the beginning?

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