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Quote (terraricca @ Jan. 14 2012,23:06) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 15 2012,03:12) Hi Pierre, “The Word” was the anointing that Christ had.
The Greek language has past/present combined tenses, modern English does not.
The original texts have many instances where our more modern vernacular lacks
the clarity of single words that contain past, present, or future tenses combined.That's why YHVH chose 1611 English, because it had combined tenses as well.
Such as, holpen, meetest and saith. Saith means: “is said and says”, meetest
means: “is met, meets, and will meet”, and holpen means: “is helped and will help”.In modern English, the word “you” lacks exactness of meaning and is rarely used in the AKJV Bible. Modern
usage of the word “you” could mean “an individual”, “a couple of people”, or even “a large group of people”.
1611 lexicon is more precise with words such as “Ye” used for a group and “Thou” for an individual. Also words
like thy, thee, and thine are among many such words used in the AKJV Bible. Without understanding of the originally
written texts, the current reader wanting a modern “word for word” translation is usually ignorant of these “technicalities”.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edjQuote “The Word” was the anointing that Christ had. first you have no scripture for claiming this interpretation,SO IT IS YOUR DECEITFUL NATURE WHO IS SPEAKING,
the fact that this as been debated extremely well and you have not learn nothing ;
this is your and only your false understanding ;
John ,in the gospel and in Revelation shows THAT “THE WORD “IS OF GOD BUT NOT GOD AND IS WITH GOD,BUT NOT GOD IS A GOD BUT NOT THE FATHER,OF WITCH HE IS THE SON,
YOUR BELIEVE IN THE SECOND RETURN OF CHRIST BEING AT THE PENTECOST,AND THE WORD OF GOD BEING THE HOLY SPIRIT ,THOSE ARE NON SCRIPTURAL DOCTRINES ,
YOU HAVE NOW SHOWN THAT YOU HAVE A GOSPEL DIFFERENT OF THE ONE THAT CHRIST AS PREACHED AND THE APOSTLES ,SO YOU ARE A DECEIVER AS WELL,
EDJ YOU ARE SLIPPING AWAY FROM GODS WORD (SCRIPTURES)
Pierre
HI Pierre,John 15:18-21 If the world hate you, ye know that it hated me before it hated you.
19 If ye were of the world, the world would love his own: but because ye are not of the world,
but I have chosen you out of the world, therefore the world hateth you. 20 Remember “The Word”that I said unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me,
they will also persecute you(Ed J); if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also.
21 But all these things will they do unto you for my name's sake, because they know not him(YHVH) that sent me.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (terraricca @ Jan. 14 2012,23:06)
John ,in the gospel and in Revelation shows THAT “THE WORD “IS OF GOD BUT NOT GOD AND IS WITH GOD,BUT NOT GOD IS A GOD BUT NOT THE FATHER,OF WITCH HE IS THE SON,
Hi Pierre,You're starting to talk like Mike now.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgHi Mike,
As far as attempting to explain what he believes, nothing.
But as far as others comprehending his run-on sentence,
I doubt that others would grasp what he is trying to say.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 15 2012,01:57) Are you saying that I post hard to understand, run-on sentences?
Hi Mike,I was referring to that long sentence Pierre wrote.
You usually break up the individual ideas better,
because English is your native tongue.I did PM you, once though, about
one particular sentence; remember?But you do try to tie ideas together,
in some questions that I believe don't belong together,
in an attempt to trap others into inadvertently agreeing to certain doctrine.
I did start a thread on that premise you know; remember? (Here is the link to that thread)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgI remember the thread. I also remember that no one came up with a “loaded” question I had ever asked, nor one of my YES/NO questions that couldn't have been answered with a “Yes” or a “No”.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 15 2012,03:30)
I remember the thread. I also remember that no one came up with a “loaded” question I had ever asked, nor one of my YES/NO questions that couldn't have been answered with a “Yes” or a “No”.
Hi Mike,I have answered this post in the other thread
I have also reconstituted our conversation
there as well, for the readers sake.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Jan. 15 2012,06:37) Quote (terraricca @ Jan. 14 2012,23:06) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 15 2012,03:12) Hi Pierre, “The Word” was the anointing that Christ had.
The Greek language has past/present combined tenses, modern English does not.
The original texts have many instances where our more modern vernacular lacks
the clarity of single words that contain past, present, or future tenses combined.That's why YHVH chose 1611 English, because it had combined tenses as well.
Such as, holpen, meetest and saith. Saith means: “is said and says”, meetest
means: “is met, meets, and will meet”, and holpen means: “is helped and will help”.In modern English, the word “you” lacks exactness of meaning and is rarely used in the AKJV Bible. Modern
usage of the word “you” could mean “an individual”, “a couple of people”, or even “a large group of people”.
1611 lexicon is more precise with words such as “Ye” used for a group and “Thou” for an individual. Also words
like thy, thee, and thine are among many such words used in the AKJV Bible. Without understanding of the originally
written texts, the current reader wanting a modern “word for word” translation is usually ignorant of these “technicalities”.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edjQuote “The Word” was the anointing that Christ had. first you have no scripture for claiming this interpretation,SO IT IS YOUR DECEITFUL NATURE WHO IS SPEAKING,
the fact that this as been debated extremely well and you have not learn nothing ;
this is your and only your false understanding ;
John ,in the gospel and in Revelation shows THAT “THE WORD “IS OF GOD BUT NOT GOD AND IS WITH GOD,BUT NOT GOD IS A GOD BUT NOT THE FATHER,OF WITCH HE IS THE SON,
YOUR BELIEVE IN THE SECOND RETURN OF CHRIST BEING AT THE PENTECOST,AND THE WORD OF GOD BEING THE HOLY SPIRIT ,THOSE ARE NON SCRIPTURAL DOCTRINES ,
YOU HAVE NOW SHOWN THAT YOU HAVE A GOSPEL DIFFERENT OF THE ONE THAT CHRIST AS PREACHED AND THE APOSTLES ,SO YOU ARE A DECEIVER AS WELL,
EDJ YOU ARE SLIPPING AWAY FROM GODS WORD (SCRIPTURES)
Pierre
HI Pierre,John 15:18-21 If the world hate you, ye know that it hated me before it hated you.
19 If ye were of the world, the world would love his own: but because ye are not of the world,
but I have chosen you out of the world, therefore the world hateth you. 20 Remember “The Word”that I said unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me,
they will also persecute you(Ed J); if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also.
21 But all these things will they do unto you for my name's sake, because they know not him(YHVH) that sent me.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edjNo ,those scriptures are not for you ,
this is for you;;Jn 17:20 “My prayer is not for them(apostles) alone. I pray also for those who will believe in me through their message,(US)edj
you have not received anything from Christ but only from the message left by the disciples
Pierre
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 15 2012,08:57) Are you saying that I post hard to understand, run-on sentences?
Mike did you have a problem in what I have written to EDJ ??the complainer,
Pierre
You are mistaken. Jesus taught his Fathers name( John 17:26), as well promised to keep on making his Fathers name known( John 17:26)–As well in the Lords prayer, Jesus showed all his Fathers name is the #1 issue for all involved. Then the Fathers kingdom and will= over self.
Before Jerome translated, he assured the Catholic leader that Gods name belongs in the NT. I am sure Jerome had originals. Yet Jerome removed Gods name against Gods will and replaced it with titles. In the early 1960,s bibles had Gods name in about 8 spots( OT) out of the over 7000 spots God willed his name to be because he wants it there.
The righteous run to Gods name, Its only the wicked who fear taking it in vain.
1Kings 8:43– Gods name must be known by all
Rom 10:13-14–Gods name must be used.
It was by satan’s will to mislead Gods name was removed, and all using the altered translations are being mislead.
The name of God, YHWH (or Yahweh), is often replaced with “Lord” out of reverence. In Jewish tradition, God’s name was considered too sacred to say aloud, so they used “Adonai” (meaning “Lord”) instead. When the Bible was translated into Greek and Latin, this practice continued, and “Kyrios” or “Dominus” (both meaning “Lord”) were used. Many English translations followed this tradition, using “LORD” in place of YHWH to show respect.
The downside besides changing the text was that it promoted the Trinity. Trinitarians will say that God is Lord and Jesus is Lord, so they are the same Lord and both are God.
And the scripture that says: There is one God the Father, and one Lord, the Lord Jesus Christ. This is about as clear as you can get that the Father is the one true God, but using the word Lord gives the Trinity the following argument. That, yes the Father is God, but the Father is Lord and so is Jesus even though it says one Lord, the Lord Jesus Christ. Thus, with the same thinking Jesus is God.
When men tamper with the things of God even if they do it for a legitimate reason, it causes problems. If scripture is inspired by God, then leave scripture alone. God knew and knows what He is doing.
Yes, but it was Jerome who removed Gods name in the 4th century. He even told the Catholic leader prior to translating that Gods name belonged in the NT as well as the OT. King Constantine played a role in how they screwed up translating to fit false council teachings. All using the altered translations with Gods name removed are being mislead.
I could be wrong, but when I search on this it seems that this was an early Jewish Practice around the time of the Second Temple period (around 500 BCE – 70 CE). Jewish communities began avoiding the pronunciation of the divine name out of reverence. Instead, they would substitute “Adonai,” meaning “Lord,” during recitations or prayers. This practice became formalised over time, and by the early centuries CE, the use of God’s name in spoken or written form was largely avoided in Jewish practice.
In a sense, Jerome did not initiate the change of the divine name, but rather continued the existing practice of translating it as “Lord” in Latin. By the time he produced the Vulgate, the use of YHWH was already avoided in common practice and most translations. Therefore, Jerome was not the one responsible for the substitution but followed a long-standing tradition that dated back to Jewish practices from the Second Temple period and the Greek Septuagint.
Are you saying that Jerome wanted to put in the real name of God? Good for him if that was his desire.
There are write ups saying it was Jerome who removed Gods name in his Latin Vulgate. It says as well he told the Catholic leader Gods name belongs in the NT.
There are many spots in the Ot where it teaches Gods name must be used, sung to, praised. Even one spot says one must be killed if they do not use the name.
1Kings 8:43–Gods name must be known by all.
2Chron 15:12-13–Those not seeking for Jehovah was to be put to death.
Ps 105:1- Give thanks to Jehovah and call on his name.
Rom 10:13-14–Gods name must be used
Only the wicked fear taking Gods name in vain, the righteous run to it as a strong tower.
The Israelites were convinced they are Gods chosen, even while apostatized like in Jesus day and today. And many x before that they fell( not all, some stood)
They always used Gods name
Daniel to Goliath- You come with sword, javelin and shield, i come in the name of Jehovah.
After all, we both understand scripture the same way.
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