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- October 17, 2011 at 9:50 pm#260944terrariccaParticipant
Quote (Ed J @ Oct. 18 2011,15:32) Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 18 2011,08:13) edj Quote Hi PR, Then you do agree that the “HolySpirit” is a “HE” rather than an 'IT', correct?
the holy spirit could be a IT' a HE a SHE
it all depend how it is you apply it ; if it is in the power then it could be a HE” for sure
if it is in wisdom it could be a IT,or HE or a SHE
this is playing with ;feminine ,masculine ,and neutral ,vocabulary
Pierre
Hi Pierre,Then you believe “wisdom” talked about in the beginning was the “HolySpirit”; right? (Prob.8:22-30)
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edjwhen I say wisdom it is the understanding of the words spoken to you ,
and all wisdom is not always feminine
October 17, 2011 at 9:58 pm#260946Ed JParticipantQuote (terraricca @ Oct. 18 2011,08:50) Quote (Ed J @ Oct. 18 2011,15:32) Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 18 2011,08:13) edj Quote Hi PR, Then you do agree that the “HolySpirit” is a “HE” rather than an 'IT', correct?
the holy spirit could be a IT' a HE a SHE
it all depend how it is you apply it ; if it is in the power then it could be a HE” for sure
if it is in wisdom it could be a IT,or HE or a SHE
this is playing with ;feminine ,masculine ,and neutral ,vocabulary
Pierre
Hi Pierre,Then you believe “wisdom” talked about in the beginning was the “HolySpirit”; right? (Prob.8:22-30)
edjwhen I say wisdom it is the understanding of the words spoken to you ,
and all wisdom is not always feminine
Hi PR,Your response clearly did NOT address my question, so will you do so now please?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgOctober 17, 2011 at 11:17 pm#260966terrariccaParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Oct. 18 2011,15:58) Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 18 2011,08:50) Quote (Ed J @ Oct. 18 2011,15:32) Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 18 2011,08:13) edj Quote Hi PR, Then you do agree that the “HolySpirit” is a “HE” rather than an 'IT', correct?
the holy spirit could be a IT' a HE a SHE
it all depend how it is you apply it ; if it is in the power then it could be a HE” for sure
if it is in wisdom it could be a IT,or HE or a SHE
this is playing with ;feminine ,masculine ,and neutral ,vocabulary
Pierre
Hi Pierre,Then you believe “wisdom” talked about in the beginning was the “HolySpirit”; right? (Prob.8:22-30)
edjwhen I say wisdom it is the understanding of the words spoken to you ,
and all wisdom is not always feminine
Hi PR,Your response clearly did NOT address my question, so will you do so now please?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edjit talks about Christ ,the first creation what God created with his great wisdom ,and so create all things trough him and it is perfect ,
Pierre
October 18, 2011 at 4:07 am#260994Ed JParticipantHi PR,
So even though the Hebrew word for Spirit is feminine,
and you know Christ was masculine, you will still choose
not to believe that “Wisdom” in Prob.8 is the “HolySpirit”?
Religious dogmas are really really hard to drop, aren't they?Witnessing to the world in behalf of YHVH! (Psalm 45:17)
יהוה האלהים=117 (JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (AKJV Isaiah 49:16 / Isaiah 60:14 / Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org …(Eccl.9:12-16)October 18, 2011 at 5:06 am#260998terrariccaParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Oct. 18 2011,22:07) Hi PR, So even though the Hebrew word for Spirit is feminine,
and you know Christ was masculine, you will still choose
not to believe that “Wisdom” in Prob.8 is the “HolySpirit”?
Religious dogmas are really really hard to drop, aren't they?Witnessing to the world in behalf of YHVH! (Psalm 45:17)
יהוה האלהים=117 (JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (AKJV Isaiah 49:16 / Isaiah 60:14 / Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org …(Eccl.9:12-16)
edjyes it is hard to drop those dogma that carry you away from truth like numbers,and rely on one selve ,and try to make others understand what your selve do not ,
and so blame the others for your own miss understanding of Gods word,
you know once i wanted to write a book to explain the understanding of scritures that i aquired ,and i start to think ,that what i have learned was already written in the bible,why would i write it in a other book ? and found it that it was more beneficial to me than to any one else ,i mean financially ,so i stoped and never wrote that book,i do not like to make money with someone else property Gods property that is,
Pierre
October 23, 2011 at 5:30 pm#261161mikeboll64BlockedQuote (terraricca @ Oct. 01 2011,11:48) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 02 2011,11:07) Quote (terraricca @ Sep. 30 2011,20:20) Mike I agree with you on this ,the Holy spirit his Gods will ;and his will could use power if needed to be fulfilled ,by miracles ,works,etc
Hi Pierre,I agree with the JWs that God's Holy Spirit is His “active force”. I think God's will is often carried out BY His Holy Spirit, just as it is often carried out by His vice regents. But I don't agree that the Holy Spirit IS His will.
peace,
mike
MikeGod his spirit ,what God says is what goes ,right but God says that his words does go out of him and only return by the accomplishment of those words,
so what God spirit wants is his will ,the holy spirit is the same will to fulfill what he had said by the prophets this can be done by power works but it still what he wants so his will
Hi Pierre,When Jesus told his disciples not to worry about what words they would say, because those words would be given to them, HOW would those words be given to them? Was it not to be the Holy Spirit of God speaking through them?
Okay, so it was God's will that they should speak this word or that word, right? But God's will is not what TOLD them to speak this word or that word. It was God's active force (His Holy Spirit) that gave God's message to them as to what to speak, thereby enabling God's will to be done through them.
The messenger was not the actual will of God, but the vessel through which God conveyed His will TO them.
mike
October 23, 2011 at 5:37 pm#261162mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Ed J @ Oct. 03 2011,08:10) Hi Pierre, The “HolySpirit” is God's will! …you have right brother!
God bless
Ed J
Let's see:It was God's will that Ed J be born with only half a brain.
It was God's Holy Spirit that Ed J be born with only half a brain.
Are the words interchangable guys? Only someone born with half a brain would say they are.
(Ed, you know I love you and that I'm just messin' with ya, right? )
peace,
mikeOctober 23, 2011 at 5:41 pm#261163mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Noal @ Oct. 06 2011,03:35) ……….are you saying that God is just some force like electricity, not an individual?
Not at all. But God exercises His will through MANY different vessels, Noal. It was God's will that 185,000 Assyrians be destroyed in one night. But it was not God's Holy Spirit that destroyed them. In this case, God chose to exercise His will through a DIFFERENT vessel – namely, one of His angels.But there are many other times that God exercises His will through the vessel of His Holy Spirit.
peace,
mikeOctober 23, 2011 at 6:43 pm#261168terrariccaParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 24 2011,11:30) Quote (terraricca @ Oct. 01 2011,11:48) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 02 2011,11:07) Quote (terraricca @ Sep. 30 2011,20:20) Mike I agree with you on this ,the Holy spirit his Gods will ;and his will could use power if needed to be fulfilled ,by miracles ,works,etc
Hi Pierre,I agree with the JWs that God's Holy Spirit is His “active force”. I think God's will is often carried out BY His Holy Spirit, just as it is often carried out by His vice regents. But I don't agree that the Holy Spirit IS His will.
peace,
mike
MikeGod his spirit ,what God says is what goes ,right but God says that his words does go out of him and only return by the accomplishment of those words,
so what God spirit wants is his will ,the holy spirit is the same will to fulfill what he had said by the prophets this can be done by power works but it still what he wants so his will
Hi Pierre,When Jesus told his disciples not to worry about what words they would say, because those words would be given to them, HOW would those words be given to them? Was it not to be the Holy Spirit of God speaking through them?
Okay, so it was God's will that they should speak this word or that word, right? But God's will is not what TOLD them to speak this word or that word. It was God's active force (His Holy Spirit) that gave God's message to them as to what to speak, thereby enabling God's will to be done through them.
The messenger was not the actual will of God, but the vessel through which God conveyed His will TO them.
mike
MikeLet see it this way;we know that God can communicate with his people (I mean individuals) over nite in dreams ,or in prayers,
and also trough angels and his words in scriptures ,
what I try to say is that whatever God communicate it is his desires or will either to be fulfilled or to be executed,or grand you our wishes, but it still his will and sins he is spirit so the holy spirit is also the reasons and purpose or plan encompass all those things ,and God will fulfill his will in all creation.
Pierre
December 24, 2011 at 12:34 am#269147WakeupParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Sep. 18 2011,20:22) Hi Everyone, I'm interested in how this Poll will turn out.
Please try to give Scriptural backing for the points
you wish to make; OK? Let's keep this good and productive.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Sorry Ed JHe is not the father, he is not an angel ,he is from everlasting yes.You did not include IS HE THE WORD.therefore i can not participate in this vote.
wakeup.
December 24, 2011 at 1:43 am#269153Ed JParticipantQuote (Wakeup @ Dec. 24 2011,10:34) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 18 2011,20:22) Hi Everyone, I'm interested in how this Poll will turn out.
Please try to give Scriptural backing for the points
you wish to make; OK? Let's keep this good and productive.God bless
Ed J
Sorry Ed JHe is not the father, he is not an angel ,he is from everlasting yes.You did not include IS HE THE WORD.therefore i can not participate in this vote.
wakeup.
Hi Wake-up, sorry, but I don't have a category called “The Father” in this poll.“and the Word was God.” (John 1:1) <– Do you not believe John's account of who "The Word" was?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgDecember 24, 2011 at 10:21 pm#269274942767ParticipantHi:
I voted #3 option because Jesus did not preexist as a sentient person. He was fore-ordained and the following scripture supports this:
Quote 1 Peter 1:17Forasmuch as ye know that ye were not redeemed with corruptible things, [as] silver and gold, from your vain conversation [received] by tradition from your fathers; 1Pe 1:19 But with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot:
1Pe 1:20 Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you,
Also, the Greek word tanslated “Word” in John 1:1 is Logos and means that which God has spoken, and what God has spoken embodies a plan. The Logos pertains to Jesus but it not Jesus as a sentient person. It was God's plan from the beginning to have a Son through whom He would reconcile the world unto Himself at a precise moment in time. And when the scripture states: “And the Word was God”, it pertains to the love of God. His giving us His Only Begotten Son to be the propitiation for our sins, defines His character. “God is Love”.
John 3:16 “For God so loved the world that he gave His Only Begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.”
Love in Christ,
MartyDecember 25, 2011 at 12:59 am#269283mikeboll64BlockedMarty,
How does “foreordained” EXCLUDE “pre-existed”?
December 25, 2011 at 1:36 am#269291942767ParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 25 2011,10:59) Marty, How does “foreordained” EXCLUDE “pre-existed”?
Hi Mike:The scripture in 1 Peter is referring to the man Christ Jesus, and the man, Christ Jesus could have not pre-existed because:
Quote Genesis 3:30 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living. Love in Christ,
MartyDecember 25, 2011 at 3:02 am#269305terrariccaParticipantQuote (942767 @ Dec. 25 2011,18:36) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 25 2011,10:59) Marty, How does “foreordained” EXCLUDE “pre-existed”?
Hi Mike:The scripture in 1 Peter is referring to the man Christ Jesus, and the man, Christ Jesus could have not pre-existed because:
Quote Genesis 3:30 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living. Love in Christ,
Marty
Martyso Jesus father was a man ? because that is the way that Eve was the mother of all men,??
if Jesus father was God then Jesus was a being that existed and was born just as Paul says in ;Col 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
Col 1:16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.
Col 1:17 He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.I would like to point out a detail here ;wen man was created he was the image of “to OUR image “Christ on the other hand HIS THE IMAGE OF THE INVISIBLE GOD”,see the difference
1Pe 1:3 Praise be to the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ! In his great mercy he has given us new birth into a living hope through the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead,
so Peter acknowledge that Christ father his God not men,WHY WOULD PETER PRAISE GOD FIRST THEN CHRIST?? peter does not say that God gives new birth to Christ but to us believers it looks like Christ did not need the things that men need to saved ,why??
BECAUSE HE CAME DOWN TO FULFILL THE WILL OF HIS FATHER IN FAVORED OF HOWEVER BELIEVED IN HIM AND HIS FATHER ,GOD CAN AND WILL GIVE ETERNAL LIVE,THIS IS WHAT HE MEANT WEN HE SAID “”I COME TO FULFILL THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS “” AND GO ON SAYING “FOR THIS i HAVE BEEN BORN””
yes, Jesus came from the father fulfill his duty and then return to his father were he came from originally, MANY DO NOT WANT TO BELIEVE SCRIPTURES BUT THAT IS WHAT IT SAYS.
Pierre
December 25, 2011 at 3:18 am#269309942767ParticipantHi Pierre:
Was Jesus born of a woman?
December 25, 2011 at 5:23 am#269319terrariccaParticipantQuote (942767 @ Dec. 25 2011,20:18) Hi Pierre: Was Jesus born of a woman?
MartyAnswer my question first
Pierre
December 25, 2011 at 3:44 pm#269337mikeboll64BlockedQuote (942767 @ Dec. 24 2011,18:36) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 25 2011,10:59) Marty, How does “foreordained” EXCLUDE “pre-existed”?
Hi Mike:The scripture in 1 Peter is referring to the man Christ Jesus, and the man, Christ Jesus could have not pre-existed because:
Quote Genesis 3:30 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living. Love in Christ,
Marty
I agree that Jesus was not a “human” during his pre-existence. And I agree that after existing in the form of God, then emptying himself and being made into a human being, he was then partially of the seed of Eve.I just don't see how anything you've posted teaches that Jesus was never anything BUT a human being.
December 26, 2011 at 2:25 am#269434942767ParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 26 2011,01:44) Quote (942767 @ Dec. 24 2011,18:36) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 25 2011,10:59) Marty, How does “foreordained” EXCLUDE “pre-existed”?
Hi Mike:The scripture in 1 Peter is referring to the man Christ Jesus, and the man, Christ Jesus could have not pre-existed because:
Quote Genesis 3:30 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living. Love in Christ,
Marty
I agree that Jesus was not a “human” during his pre-existence. And I agree that after existing in the form of God, then emptying himself and being made into a human being, he was then partially of the seed of Eve.I just don't see how anything you've posted teaches that Jesus was never anything BUT a human being.
Hi Mike:Do you agree that the scripture relative to Jesus being foreordained in the scripture that I quoted from 1 Peter 1 is speaking of Jesus who was conceived of the Holy Ghost in the womb of the virgin Mary?
Love in Christ,
MartyDecember 26, 2011 at 5:48 am#269445terrariccaParticipantQuote (942767 @ Dec. 26 2011,19:25) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 26 2011,01:44) Quote (942767 @ Dec. 24 2011,18:36) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 25 2011,10:59) Marty, How does “foreordained” EXCLUDE “pre-existed”?
Hi Mike:The scripture in 1 Peter is referring to the man Christ Jesus, and the man, Christ Jesus could have not pre-existed because:
Quote Genesis 3:30 And Adam called his wife's name Eve; because she was the mother of all living. Love in Christ,
Marty
I agree that Jesus was not a “human” during his pre-existence. And I agree that after existing in the form of God, then emptying himself and being made into a human being, he was then partially of the seed of Eve.I just don't see how anything you've posted teaches that Jesus was never anything BUT a human being.
Hi Mike:Do you agree that the scripture relative to Jesus being foreordained in the scripture that I quoted from 1 Peter 1 is speaking of Jesus who was conceived of the Holy Ghost in the womb of the virgin Mary?
Love in Christ,
Marty
martyCould you answer my questions ,previous quote
Peter is the first apostle that has said that Christ Was the son of the living God,
Pierre
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