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Quote (terraricca @ Feb. 21 2012,00:41) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 21 2012,06:44) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 20 2012,12:37) Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 19 2012,18:55) Hi ,
Some would argue with John using human logic.
Best to listen to the Spirit in him
Nick,You are either ignoring or purposely misrepresenting the FACTS of John 1:1.
The FACT is that the anarthrous “theos” in 1:1c can be translated as the definite “THE God”, or as the indefinite “a god”. This is the undeniable FACT of the matter.
We must translate in the way that fits the context of the scripture. And there is no way that “THE God” could have been WITH “THE God”.
Even the 25 Trinitarian scholars from NETNotes know this – despite the fact that they'd love nothing better than to be able to say that 1:1 is a proof that Jesus is “THE God”. But instead they know that:
The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God (this is ruled out by 1:1b, “the Word was with God”)
Why is it that I understand this, and Pierre understands this, and the 25 Trinitarian scholars from NETNotes understand this – but you don't?
So you can plug your ears and shield you eyes from this FACT if you want to, but we know better.
Hi Mike,You are attempting to cancel at least two Scriptures (John 1:1 and Isaiah 44:8)
with your rudimentary logic. Your quest dissuade others is getting no-where.(John 1:1) “The Word” was God.
(Isaiah 44:8) “Ye are even my witnesses.
Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no other God;”
We(Me and others) are witnesses of God, there is no other GOD!God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edjQuote (John 1:1) “The Word” was God. WAS
?so no longer is
?
Hu Pierre,You ask the right question, but to the wrong part of the verse.
“The Word was with God”, and now is with us! (John 1:33 / Rom.8:16)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgPierre,
It seems as if Nick has resigned himself to the same scripture twisting that pleases Gene so much. He has changed “the Word BECAME flesh” to “the Word came to be IN someone who was already flesh”.
This is also how Gene avoids John 1:14.
Nick, which one had the glory of the only begotten of God? The Word, or Jesus? Or was it the combination entity made up of the both of them? In which case, something that was God Himself in the beginning (according to you) became the Son of God. God Almighty became His own Son?
Ed,
You went away for a while. You had told me that “lord” in the case of God means “owner”, while “lord” in the case of Jesus means “master”.
Yet Paul tells us there is but ONE lord, Jesus Christ. And he says that right after saying there are MANY lords in heaven and on earth. He also tells those of us who are slaves to obey our earthly lords as if we were obeying Christ himself.
Now, the earthly lords who own slaves are both master and owner to those slaves, right?
My question is:
How many lords are there in existence? One, like Paul says? Or many, like Paul says?
Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 21 2012,13:35) Hi T,
Indeed the Christos came and was made flesh in Yahshua and dwelt among us.
nickChrist himself his the WORD OF GOD,
that became flesh,words do not become flesh but become written in books or past on verbally,words are to believed or rejected,words are forming thoughts and so become power,
providing that the one who say them as the full power to enforce
those words,
SO YOU HAVE NOT ACCEPTED THE WORD OF GOD (CHRIST)CAME IN THE FLESHQuote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 20 2012,16:00) Hi,
The word became flesh.
So at the exact time that the Word BECAME flesh, did the Word cease to be spirit, Nick?Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 21 2012,15:59) Pierre, It seems as if Nick has resigned himself to the same scripture twisting that pleases Gene so much. He has changed “the Word BECAME flesh” to “the Word came to be IN someone who was already flesh”.
This is also how Gene avoids John 1:14.
Nick, which one had the glory of the only begotten of God? The Word, or Jesus? Or was it the combination entity made up of the both of them? In which case, something that was God Himself in the beginning (according to you) became the Son of God. God Almighty became His own Son?
MikeI think you right they will not come to the truth unless they accept the fact that the WORD of God became flesh and so dwell among us( as God “s Christ) and spook the words of live from his father,
well ,let them be deceived by their own heart,
Hi,
God could have done it all without our help but wanted puny men to share eternal life with him.
How gracious is our God.
So the clean chosen vessel of Jesus was filled with the Spirit and led by that Spirit we who join with him can partake in the victory in himQuote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 21 2012,09:05) Ed, You went away for a while. You had told me that “lord” in the case of God means “owner”, while “lord” in the case of Jesus means “master”.
Yet Paul tells us there is but ONE lord, Jesus Christ. And he says that right after saying there are MANY lords in heaven and on earth. He also tells those of us who are slaves to obey our earthly lords as if we were obeying Christ himself.
Now, the earthly lords who own slaves are both master and owner to those slaves, right?
My question is:
How many lords are there in existence? One, like Paul says? Or many, like Paul says?
Hey Nick,You are right, Mike is trying to make Scripture argue with Scripture.
Hi Mike,
YHVH didn't make others into gods,
but he did make Jesus both Lord and Christ.“Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God
hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.” (Acts 2:36)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgScripture doesn't argue with scripture, Ed. And there is no way I could “make it” do so.
Please answer the question that Nick could not.
Hi,
The Word does not change from being the Spirit when it lives in unity with man.
Neither does the Spirit ever lose unity with God.
Complete unity is the planSo then John meant, “the Word came to be in unity with flesh” instead of “the Word BECAME flesh”?
Come on, Nick.
Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 21 2012,16:26) Hi,
God could have done it all without our help but wanted puny men to share eternal life with him.
How gracious is our God.
So the clean chosen vessel of Jesus was filled with the Spirit and led by that Spirit we who join with him can partake in the victory in him
Nick
God does not do magic trucksQuote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 21 2012,09:43) Scripture doesn't argue with scripture, Ed. And there is no way I could “make it” do so. Please answer the question that Nick could not.
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 21 2012,09:05) How many lords are there in existence? One, like Paul says? Or many, like Paul says?
Hi Mike,Then what is this?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNick,
I await an answer to my question about what John really meant – according to you.
Ed,
I await a DIRECT answer to my question.
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