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So the Holy Spirit IS God, and the Holy Spirit became flesh, right? So, in other words, God became flesh, right? And God had the glory of the only begotten from the Father, right?
Am I getting it so far?
mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 29 2010,14:41) (1)So the Holy Spirit IS God, (2)and the Holy Spirit became flesh, right? (3)So, in other words, God became flesh, right? (4)And God had the glory of the only begotten from the Father, right? Am I getting it so far?
mike
Hi Mike,Your on the right track! But point #4 still has you a bit screwed up.
1) Acts 5:3-4 But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the HolySpirit,
and to keep back part of the price of the land? Whiles it remained, was it not thine own?
and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived
this thing in thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God.2) John 1:14 And “The Word”(HolySpirit) was made flesh, and dwelt
among us (Matt. 1:23), (and we beheld his(HolySpirit's) glory, the glory
as of the only begotten(Jesus Christ) of the Father,) full of grace and truth.3) Matthew 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son,
and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.4) They beheld God's glory in his(HolySpirit's) only begotten son “Jesus Christ”! (John 14:9)
John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known
me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?The Word is of God, and “The Word” is God! (John 1:1 / Rev.19:13-16)
John 3:34: For he whom God hath sent speaketh “The Words” of God:
for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
John 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings:
and “The Word” which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.
John 12:49-50 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me,
he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I
should speak. And I know that his commandment is life everlasting:
whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgHi Ed,
Okay, now I know you think God Himself “was made flesh” in the person of Jesus.
And you ignore verse 9 in Acts, in John 1:14 there is only one glory mentioned – not two, “Immanuel” is better translated “God IS with us”, and in John 14:9, Jesus is making a metaphor to verify he only taught what his God told him to……..for “no one has EVER seen God”.
Question: Was this “Word/Holy Spirit/God Himself” who was made flesh in the person of Jesus ALWAYS the one doing the talking? Or did the fleshly person he existed in speak some of his own words on occasion?
peace and love,
mikeHi Mike,
The question you ask in your second paragraph, you answer in the first.
[verse 9 in Acts]?
God bless
Ed J
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNo……..I don't see it. Tell me how I answered my own question. Or better yet, just DIRECTLY answer the DIRECT question I asked you.
mike
Quote (Ed J @ Oct. 29 2010,23:22) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 29 2010,14:41) (1)So the Holy Spirit IS God, (2)and the Holy Spirit became flesh, right? (3)So, in other words, God became flesh, right? (4)And God had the glory of the only begotten from the Father, right? Am I getting it so far?
mike
Hi Mike,Your on the right track! But point #4 still has you a bit screwed up.
1) Acts 5:3-4 But Peter said, Ananias, why hath Satan filled thine heart to lie to the HolySpirit,
and to keep back part of the price of the land? Whiles it remained, was it not thine own?
and after it was sold, was it not in thine own power? why hast thou conceived
this thing in thine heart? thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God.2) John 1:14 And “The Word”(HolySpirit) was made flesh, and dwelt
among us (Matt. 1:23), (and we beheld his(HolySpirit's) glory, the glory
as of the only begotten(Jesus Christ) of the Father,) full of grace and truth.3) Matthew 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son,
and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.4) They beheld God's glory in his(HolySpirit's) only begotten son “Jesus Christ”! (John 14:9)
John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known
me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?The Word is of God, and “The Word” is God! (John 1:1 / Rev.19:13-16)
John 3:34: For he whom God hath sent speaketh “The Words” of God:
for God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
John 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings:
and “The Word” which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.
John 12:49-50 For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father which sent me,
he gave me a commandment, what I should say, and what I
should speak. And I know that his commandment is life everlasting:
whatsoever I speak therefore, even as the Father said unto me, so I speak.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edjdo you really believe that you trickery will not be noticed??
Jn 14:24 He who does not love me will not obey my teaching. These words you hear are not my own; they belong to the Father who sent me.
it says words NOT word.
you say;thou hast not lied unto men, but unto God[/b].
this means that wen you commit yourself to God ,you are now a servant of God and so render account to God not to men,get it
you say; “The Word”(HolySpirit)
“THE WORD” OF GOD (CHRIST) IS NOT THE HOLY SPIRIT ,THIS IS A LIE FROM EDJ,HE DOES NOT BELIEVE THE WORDS IN SCRIPTURES ONLY WHAT HE CAN UNDERSTAND AND SUPPORT HIS WAYS.
YOU BETTER CHECK YOUR NUMBERS 1,2,3,4, THEY ARE NOT WELL INTERPRETED.
Pierre
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 30 2010,13:00) Hi Ed, Okay, now I know you think God Himself “was made flesh” in the person of Jesus.
And you ignore verse 9 in Acts, in John 1:14 there is only one glory mentioned – not two, “Immanuel” is better translated “God IS with us”, and in John 14:9, Jesus is making a metaphor to verify he only taught what his God told him to……..for “no one has EVER seen God”.
Question: Was this “Word/Holy Spirit/God Himself” who was made flesh in the person of Jesus ALWAYS the one doing the talking? Or did the fleshly person he existed in speak some of his own words on occasion?
peace and love,
mike
Hi Mike,What verse is verse 9 in Acts?
Jesus spoke “The Word” of God.
Jesus also spoke his own words.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgIn the beginning was God! There is One God. God is one! God is spirit,one spirit, one whole spirit from which all things came into being. Gods words are spirit, life, truth, all power, love and many other aspects from ONE SPIRIT! All that is came from ONE! All that will ever be is from ONE spirit. Many aspects, one spirit. John 17:11,21,22,23 Jesus prayed the father that all be made one even as God/Jesus are one.
Jesus said, I in them, thou in me that they be made perfect in one! 1Cor.12:11 One spirit, one body, one lord, many members.If anyone cares to look it up the word that is being translated as thing or things in the new testament is the greek word “logos”. The same word John used, In the beginning was the word and the word was made flesh in a man. Logos is Jesus is God is spirit is the word, is the truth is life is good is all and in all. All is God except mans created evil. There is no evil in God so whatever might be considered evil is not in or from God. When we rid our minds of all beliefs of evil, untruth, sin and anti-Christ doctrines which are not of God then the bright light of God will shine and flow through each perfected son of God in fullness of health and abundance. When we see him, we will be like him, for as he is, so are we, in this world!! TK
Ed:
Quote Hi Mike, What verse is verse 9 in Acts?
Jesus spoke “The Word” of God.
My point is that you try to use Acts 5:4 as proof that the Holy Spirit is God Himself. Verse 9 makes it clear that the Holy Spirit is OF God, not God Himself. Do you agree?Ed:
Quote Jesus also spoke his own words.
So then Jesus was a flesh being. And the Holy Spirit was also a flesh being within the flesh being of Jesus, right?So how do we know which words that came out of Jesus' mouth should be held high as direct words from God, and which ones are just the words of a normal everyday human being?
Let's work on “only begotten” next.
Do you think God's Holy Spirit is His “only begotten Son”?
mike
Quote (Tim Kraft @ Oct. 31 2010,20:55) Logos is Jesus is God is spirit is the word, is the truth is life is good is all and in all. All is God except mans created evil.
Hi Tim,God is Holy, right? Are you saying everything except man's created evil is “Holy”?
Is every lamb in the world “Holy”? If so, then why were only some of them to be accepted as sacrifices to God?
Are all clothes “Holy”? For God gave explicite instructions for the priestly clothes to remain in the temple so they didn't accidently touch anything unholy………because only those particular clothes were “Holy”.
Just some thoughts.peace and love,
mikeQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,09:36) Ed: Quote Hi Mike, What verse is verse 9 in Acts?
Jesus spoke “The Word” of God.
(1) My point is that you try to use Acts 5:4 as proof that the Holy Spirit is God Himself. Verse 9 makes it clear that the Holy Spirit is OF God, not God Himself. Do you agree?Ed:
Quote Jesus also spoke his own words.
(2) So then Jesus was a flesh being. And the Holy Spirit was also a flesh being within the flesh being of Jesus, right?(3) So how do we know which words that came out of Jesus' mouth should be held high as direct words from God, and which ones are just the words of a normal everyday human being?
(4) Let's work on “only begotten” next.
(5) Do you think God's Holy Spirit is His “only begotten Son”?
mike
Hi Mike,1) Is not your finger both of you and you?
You “cannot” deny that your finger is you; can you?
2) NO; Not two flesh beings? John 10:30 I and my Father are one.
3) John 7:17 If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine,
whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.My question to you: PLEASE explain “The Word” part in John 15:20 is in light of John 5:19; OK?
If NOT Jesus, then what does “The Word” mean here in John 15:20?
And if not Jesus why do you try to make such a distinction in John 1:1?John 15:20 Remember “The word” that I(Jesus) said unto you, The servant is not greater
than his lord. If they have persecuted me, they will also persecute you;
if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also.John 5:19: Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you,
The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do:
for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.4) I believe we have agreement: Jesus is God's “only begotten” Son, physically conceived by God; right?
5) Jesus' is the only begotten Son of HolySpirit(God)(Acts 5:3-4), Jesus' Father. (Matt.1:18 / Matt.1:20 / Luke 1:35)
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgHi Ed,
I'm glad we are making headway. Even if we don't end up agreeing, I enjoy the point by point way we're doing this.
Ed:
Quote 1) Is not your finger both of you and you?
You “cannot” deny that your finger is you; can you?
No Ed, my finger is not “ME”. I can go jogging around the block. My finger cannot. I can breathe. My finger cannot. I can slam on the brakes when some yahoo pulls out in front of me. My finger cannot.My finger is a part OF me, not ME. The “Spirit OF God” is a part OF God……..not God Himself.
Ed:
Quote 3) John 7:17 If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine,
whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.
Now was that the flesh person Jesus who said those above words, or the flesh person “holy spirit” who said them?Ed:
Quote My question to you: PLEASE explain “The Word” part in John 15:20 is in light of John 5:19; OK?
Ed, why are you confused? Can't you tell by context when it is speaking about words God spoke and when it is speaking about God's Spokesman, who is called “the Word of God”? Look at John 5:24,24″I tell you the truth, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be condemned; he has crossed over from death to life.
Now, is this the literal words of God who have somehow become a flesh person speaking here? Are the “words of God” also able to speak their own words? Because you can see it can't be “God Himself” speaking through Jesus, right? God didn't “send” Himself, right? It is obviously Jesus speaking his own words here. But he calls his words “my word”. So do we now have a “Word of God” AND a “Word of Jesus”?
Do you see how silly this gets? Face it, sometimes “word of God” means the words God has spoken. Other times, it refers to Jesus, the Spokesman of God. So how do we know which one is referred to in John 1:1? Context. God's “spoken word” is not His “only begotten Son”. A “spoken word” cannot become flesh. A “spoken word” cannot have his sandal tied. But God's Spokesman can and did all of those things.
Ed:
Quote 4) I believe we have agreement: Jesus is God's “only begotten” Son, physically conceived by God; right?
Yes………3 times. Once in the beginning, once as flesh, and once from the dead.Ed:
Quote 5) Jesus' is the only begotten Son of HolySpirit(God)(Acts 5:3-4), Jesus' Father. (Matt.1:18 / Matt.1:20 / Luke 1:35) No, Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. God cause Mary to become pregnant with Jesus BY MEANS OF HIS HOLY SPIRIT. And you can't keep using Acts 5:3-4 while ignoring verse 9, which CLEARLY says it was the Spirit OF God who was lied to.
Think about it Ed. Doesn't Jesus mention both the Father AND the Holy Spirit in his teachings? Jesus says the Father will send another helper. We later find out this helper is the Holy Spirit. Yet you think it is the Holy Spirit who was made flesh that is speaking these words about SENDING the Holy Spirit. Not to mention, just the wording that “the Father will send” means the Holy Spirit is not the Father Himself. And if the Holy Spirit is not the Father Himself, then the Holy Spirit is not God Himself, because the Father is our ONLY God.
peace and love,
mikeQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,14:22) Hi Ed, I'm glad we are making headway. Even if we don't end up agreeing, I enjoy the point by point way we're doing this.
Ed:
Quote 1) Is not your finger both of you and you?
You “cannot” deny that your finger is you; can you?
No Ed, my finger is not “ME”. I can go jogging around the block. My finger cannot. I can breathe. My finger cannot. I can slam on the brakes when some yahoo pulls out in front of me. My finger cannot.My finger is a part OF me, not ME. The “Spirit OF God” is a part OF God……..not God Himself.
peace and love,
mike
Hi Mike,I see your attempting to prove your point by merely juggling words.
I see nothing wrong with trying to convince others with this practice.
However the point that I have been trying to make is not that your finger
is your entirety, but is nevertheless you; your finger is of you and is you.The reason I use this analogy to illustrate “The Word”
is the “HolySpirit” as John 1:1 alludes to: is because…1) The HolySpirit was with/in Jesus. (Acts:10:38)
2) Jesus said his father doeth the works. (John 14:10)
3) Jesus cast out devils with the “Finger” of God. (Luke 11:20)So is God's finger the “HolySpirit”? I believe so.
Is the “HolySpirit” Jesus' Father? Matt.1:18,20 and Luke 1:35 suggest so.
Jesus also said he spoke his father's words. So if his Father is “The Word”, this completes the picture.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,14:22) Hi Ed, Ed:
Quote 3) John 7:17 If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine,
whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself.
Now was that the flesh person Jesus who said those above words, or the flesh person “holy spirit” who said them?peace and love,
mike
Hi Mike,It sounds like Jesus was telling us here that the doctrine he speaks is his father's.
Meaning he was speaking on his own behalf: telling us he speaks on the fathers behalf.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,14:22) Hi Ed, Ed:
Quote My question to you: PLEASE explain “The Word” part in John 15:20 is in light of John 5:19; OK?
Ed, why are you confused? Can't you tell by context when it is speaking about words God spoke and when it is speaking about God's Spokesman, who is called “the Word of God”? Look at John 5:24,24″I tell you the truth, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be condemned; he has crossed over from death to life.
Now, is this the literal words of God who have somehow become a flesh person speaking here? Are the “words of God” also able to speak their own words? Because you can see it can't be “God Himself” speaking through Jesus, right? God didn't “send” Himself, right? It is obviously Jesus speaking his own words here. But he calls his words “my word”. So do we now have a “Word of God” AND a “Word of Jesus”?
Do you see how silly this gets? Face it, sometimes “word of God” means the words God has spoken. Other times, it refers to Jesus, the Spokesman of God. So how do we know which one is referred to in John 1:1? Context. God's “spoken word” is not His “only begotten Son”. A “spoken word” cannot become flesh. A “spoken word” cannot have his sandal tied. But God's Spokesman can and did all of those things.
peace and love,
mike
Hi Mike,Please don't say I'm confused, I assure this is not the case.
I simply want you to explain the discrepancies (I percieve) in your presented view.I did not mention John 5:24, why are you bringing this verse into your explanation?
I did not ask you who's words was Jesus speaking? You are clearly answering the wrong question.THE REAL QUESTION is…
“The Son can do nothing of himself”
How does this point (↑) in John 5:24 square with this point (↓) in John 15:20
“The Word that I said unto you”Jesus cannot be “The Word” in John 15:20, because that would nullify John 5:24.
In more term then: if “The Word” is not Jesus, then why do you say he is?
Please keep the focus of your explanation only on “only” these two points.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,14:22) Hi Ed, Ed:
Quote 4) I believe we have agreement: Jesus is God's “only begotten” Son, physically conceived by God; right?
Yes………3 times. Once in the beginning, once as flesh, and once from the dead.peace and love,
mike
Hi Mike,Great!
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,14:22) Hi Ed, Ed:
Quote 5) Jesus' is the only begotten Son of HolySpirit(God)(Acts 5:3-4), Jesus' Father. (Matt.1:18 / Matt.1:20 / Luke 1:35) [ [ [ No ] ] ], Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. God cause Mary to become pregnant with Jesus BY MEANS OF HIS HOLY SPIRIT. And you can't keep using Acts 5:3-4 while ignoring verse 9, which CLEARLY says it was the Spirit OF God who was lied to.
Think about it Ed. Doesn't Jesus mention both the Father AND the Holy Spirit in his teachings? Jesus says the Father will send another helper. We later find out this helper is the Holy Spirit. Yet you think it is the Holy Spirit who was made flesh that is speaking these words about SENDING the Holy Spirit. Not to mention, just the wording that “the Father will send” means the Holy Spirit is not the Father Himself. And if the Holy Spirit is not the Father Himself, then the Holy Spirit is not God Himself, because the Father is our ONLY God.
peace and love,
mike
Hi Mike,This one we are clearly going to have to go into a much greater detail of discussion.
1) Does not “The Bible” credit The HolySpirit for the conception?
2) Does not “The Bible” call the “HolySpirit” God in Acts 5:4?
3) Does not “The Bible” call the result of Mary's conception “The Son of God” in Luke 1:35?
If these three points are all true, then why do you say No?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,14:22) Hi Ed, No, Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. God cause Mary to become pregnant with Jesus BY MEANS OF HIS HOLY SPIRIT. And you can't keep using Acts 5:3-4 while ignoring verse 9, which CLEARLY says it was the Spirit OF God who was lied to.
peace and love,
mike
Hi Mike,Your juggling words again.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 01 2010,14:22) Hi Ed, Think about it Ed. (1)Doesn't Jesus mention both the Father AND the Holy Spirit in his teachings? (2)Jesus says the Father will send another helper. We later find out this helper is the Holy Spirit. (3)Yet you think it is the Holy Spirit who was made flesh that is speaking these words about SENDING the Holy Spirit. (4)Not to mention, just the wording that “the Father will send” means the Holy Spirit is not the Father Himself. (5)And if the Holy Spirit is not the Father Himself, (6)then the Holy Spirit is not God Himself, because the Father is our ONLY God.
peace and love,
mike
Hi Mike,1) Do you not have “a head” along with “a finger”?
2) So we have “a book” that was written by people moved by the HolySpirit, called “The Word” of God.
And we have the HolySpirit housed inside our individual tabernacles called God, to help us interpret this book.3) No; Jesus was speaking in behalf of the HolySpirit(his Father), sending his father to us in our behalf.
Lets try to keep this information accurate and without contradiction; OK?4) Jesus sends the father's HolySpirit in our behalf, the father sending Jesus
along with himself (John 14:23) to us in Jesus name. (John 16:7 / John 14:26)5) The HolySpirit is the Father.
6) The wording you use here, I explain in Chapters 8 and 11 of “HolyCityBibleCode”; the free e-book.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
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