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Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Mar. 12 2011,09:30)
But the most important evidence is the scriptures themselves that do not teach Polytheism.
It is very telling that this is your “most important evidence”, Keith.
Because you yourself have admitted there WERE “gods” mentioned in scripture who were neither God Almighty nor false gods.
But who really cares what YOU think? Let's look to the Apostle Paul, who said “there are many gods and many lords, both IN HEAVEN and on earth”. Was Paul teaching polytheism by accepting the very plain fact that there ARE many gods and lords mentioned in the Bible?
So if your MOST IMPORTANT EVIDENCE is shot down by the words of Paul himself, then you are hurting here, brother.
Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Mar. 12 2011,09:30)
Well it is possible that anyone like the JWs can translate it that way, but is it grammatically and textually possible to be translated that way?
Keith, you're getting closer to speaking the truth………and MUCH sooner than I had expected.To answer YOUR question, “YES”, it is both grammatically and textually POSSIBLE for it to be translated that way, as proven by the many other scriptures where we've added the indefinite article in similar circumstance, and by the Coptic version. And if the HONEST answer to YOUR question is “YES”, then the honest answer to MINE is “NO, it is NOT a complete IMPOSSIBILITY for the Greek words, as they are, to be rendered as 'a god' “.
Now we ALL know the HONEST answer, Keith. The real question is how long it will take until you HONESTLY admit that answer to me.
I bet 2 weeks or more.
mike
Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Mar. 12 2011,09:40) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 11 2011,21:12) 1. The Word is THE God.
2. In the beginning, THE God was WITH THE God. (God is ONE BEING, so the ONE BEING of God cannot possibly be WITH the ONE BEING of God.)
3. THE God became flesh, and people were able to see THE God and touch THE God, in direct contrast to what the scriptures teach.
4. THE God is begotten. (1:18)
5. THE God is the Anointed One OF THE God.
6. THE God was SENT by THE God.
7. THE God was tortured and killed by the puny humans He Himself created.
8. THE God many times prayed to THE God.
9. THE God asked THE God to glorify him.
10. THE God, while dead, somehow raised Himself from the dead.
11. Death DID have power over THE God for a time. DEATH! Something THE God created in the first place had power over HIM?
12. THE God was raised to the right hand of THE God.
All of it has been debunked for thousands of years. Read your history and about our Christian heritage. The Trinitarian view prevailed because it is a Biblical concept that only those with ears to hear and eyes to see can see!
WJ
Are you SERIOUS?!?!? That's you answer to my points? Wow! What a cop-out!
And why did you scroll back to my older list when the post your were addressing had my newer updated list? There are now 15 items, instead of 12. Don't worry, I'll keep adding to it.
1. The Word is THE God.
2. In the beginning, THE God was WITH THE God. (God is ONE BEING, so the ONE BEING of God cannot possibly be WITH the ONE BEING of God.)
3. THE God became flesh, and people were able to see THE God and touch THE God, in direct contrast to what the scriptures teach.
4. THE God is begotten. (1:18)
5. THE God is the Anointed One OF THE God.
6. THE God was SENT by THE God.
7. THE God was tortured and killed by the puny humans He Himself created.
8. THE God many times prayed to THE God.
9. THE God asked THE God to glorify him.
10. THE God DIED!
11. THE God, while dead, somehow raised Himself from the dead.
12. Death DID have power over THE God for a time. (DEATH! Something THE God created in the first place had power over HIM? )
13. THE God was raised to the right hand of THE God.
14. THE God will hand the Kingdom back over the THE God, so THE God can be all in all.
15. Then at the same time, THE God will rule as a Prince to THE God, in the name and strength of THE God, who will be THE God to the people.mike
Quote (Ed J @ Mar. 12 2011,09:57) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,03:35) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Mar. 12 2011,09:13) Mike Davids so called evidence has already been debunked!
Debunked? By whom?Keith, DO THE COPTICS RENDER IT AS “a god” or not?
mike
Hi Mike,Although I don't agree with the JW's (N.W.T.) rendering of John 1:1,
“both” forms of Coptic (Sahidic & Bohairic) do have John 1:1
translated with their version of an 'indefinite article'.http://copticjohn.blogspot.com/2007….rl=http
http://www.dailystrength.org/groups….3553879
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Hi Ed,So the answer Keith should say is, “YES”, right?
mike
Hi Mike,
Google has John 1:1 translated the same as “AKJV Bible”! …Certainly you CANNOT call Google biased!
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(Google) In the beginning was the Logos, and the Word was with God, and God was the word,
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,04:01) Quote (Ed J @ Mar. 12 2011,09:57) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,03:35) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Mar. 12 2011,09:13) Mike Davids so called evidence has already been debunked!
Debunked? By whom?Keith, DO THE COPTICS RENDER IT AS “a god” or not?
mike
Hi Mike,Although I don't agree with the JW's (N.W.T.) rendering of John 1:1,
“both” forms of Coptic (Sahidic & Bohairic) do have John 1:1
translated with their version of an 'indefinite article'.http://copticjohn.blogspot.com/2007….rl=http
http://www.dailystrength.org/groups….3553879
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Hi Ed,So the answer Keith should say is, “YES”, right?
mike
Hi Mike,The Bible can be translated many ways,
but that doesn't mean they are correct in the least!Witnessing to a worldwide audience in behalf of YHVH!
יהוה האלהים (JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (Isaiah 49:16 / Isaiah 60:14 / Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org (Ecl.9:12-16)Hey Keith,
Did you see that example in Revelation 21:7 where the definite article is not present before the predicate “God.” The verse says, “The one who overcomes will have this heritage, and I will be His God.”
The word “God” is prediacte nominative just as in John 1:1. So if we go by Mike's freak Greek it should say, “…and I will be a god of him.”
Jack
Quote (Ed J @ Mar. 12 2011,10:06) Hi Mike, Google has John 1:1 translated the same as “AKJV Bible”! …Certainly you CANNOT call Google biased!
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(Google) In the beginning was the Logos, and the Word was with God, and God was the word,
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Ed,We've both seen how Google translated Psalm 2:7.
Try it on John 8:44 and post the results.
mike
Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Mar. 12 2011,10:11) Hey Keith, Did you see that example in Revelation 21:7 where the definite article is not present before the predicate “God.” The verse says, “The one who overcomes will have this heritage, and I will be His God.”
The word “God” is prediacte nominative just as in John 1:1. So if we go by Mike's freak Greek it should say, “…and I will be a god of him.”
Jack
Really Jack?So now the theos in 1:1c is genetive?
Quote (Ed J @ Mar. 12 2011,10:08) Hi Mike, The Bible can be translated many ways,
but that doesn't mean they are correct in the least!
Yes Ed,And that goes for the AKJV as much as any other translation.
Mike,
I took two years of new Testamennt Greek in College. I am talking about textbook Greek with lectures by professors and classs time and mid-term exams and final exams and the whole nine yards. Plus I have studied NT Greek for many years beyond that.
Please list your credentials other than the layman's online Greek?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,04:13) Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Mar. 12 2011,10:11) Hey Keith, Did you see that example in Revelation 21:7 where the definite article is not present before the predicate “God.” The verse says, “The one who overcomes will have this heritage, and I will be His God.”
The word “God” is prediacte nominative just as in John 1:1. So if we go by Mike's freak Greek it should say, “…and I will be a god of him.”
Jack
Really Jack?So now the theos in 1:1c is genetive?
I said it was NOMINATIVE Mike! You're flippin out my man!Jack, Ed and Keith,
ENOUGH ALREADY. I have posed ONE SIMPLE YES OR NO QUESTION. Which of you will be the first one to answer it HONESTLY?
The question:
Is it a COMPLETE GRAMMATICAL IMPOSSIBILITY FOR THE GREEK WORDS IN 1:1c TO BE TRANSLATED AS “a god”?The answer is “NO”, but which one of you will be the first to honestly admit this?
mike
Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Mar. 13 2011,04:18) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,04:13) Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Mar. 12 2011,10:11) Hey Keith, Did you see that example in Revelation 21:7 where the definite article is not present before the predicate “God.” The verse says, “The one who overcomes will have this heritage, and I will be His God.”
The word “God” is prediacte nominative just as in John 1:1. So if we go by Mike's freak Greek it should say, “…and I will be a god of him.”
Jack
Really Jack?So now the theos in 1:1c is genetive?
I said it was NOMINATIVE Mike! You're flippin out my man!
Keith,Did you see this? I said that the word “God” in John 1:1 is predicate NOMINATIVE and Mike says that I said it is genetive.
The man's losin it!
Jack
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,04:14) Quote (Ed J @ Mar. 12 2011,10:08) Hi Mike, The Bible can be translated many ways,
but that doesn't mean they are correct in the least!
Yes Ed,And that goes for the AKJV as much as any other translation.
Hi Mike,God's Signature
The Bible(63) → AKJV Bible(74)יהוה=26 (God's Name: YHVH pronounced YÄ-hä-vā)
YHVH=63 (God's Name יהוה translated into English)
Jesus=74 (God's Son's name in English is: “Joshua”)
HolySpirit=151 (“FATHER: The Word”: in all believers)
God The Father=117 (Representing “GOD”: יהוה האלהים)Psalm 12:6-7 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.
Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them (In The AKJV Bible) from this generation for ever.
Isaiah 28:11: For with stammering lips and another tongue(That is English) will he speak to this people.Your brother
in Christ, Jesus!
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Mar. 12 2011,10:18) I said it was NOMINATIVE Mike! You're flippin out my man!
Okay, I saw the “of him” you posted and assumed genetive. Now that I've looked, I notice the word “autos” in front of “theos”. Is this the case in 1:1c?mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,04:19) Jack, Ed and Keith, ENOUGH ALREADY. I have posed ONE SIMPLE YES OR NO QUESTION. Which of you will be the first one to answer it HONESTLY?
The question:
Is it a COMPLETE GRAMMATICAL IMPOSSIBILITY FOR THE GREEK WORDS IN 1:1c TO BE TRANSLATED AS “a god”?The answer is “NO”, but which one of you will be the first to honestly admit this?
mike
WE HAVE ALREADY ANSWERED YOU! THE ANSWER IS NO!Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Mar. 12 2011,10:23) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,04:19) Jack, Ed and Keith, ENOUGH ALREADY. I have posed ONE SIMPLE YES OR NO QUESTION. Which of you will be the first one to answer it HONESTLY?
The question:
Is it a COMPLETE GRAMMATICAL IMPOSSIBILITY FOR THE GREEK WORDS IN 1:1c TO BE TRANSLATED AS “a god”?The answer is “NO”, but which one of you will be the first to honestly admit this?
mike
WE HAVE ALREADY ANSWERED YOU! THE ANSWER IS NO!
Yeah, but I said “HONESTLY”, Jack.Let me rephrase the question to filter out dishonest answers:
Can you show clear scholarly and expert EVIDENCE that supports the claim that it is a COMPLETE GRAMMATICAL IMPOSSIBILITY for 1:1c to be translated as “a god”?
mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,04:12) Quote (Ed J @ Mar. 12 2011,10:06) Hi Mike, Google has John 1:1 translated the same as “AKJV Bible”! …Certainly you CANNOT call Google biased!
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
(Google) In the beginning was the Logos, and the Word was with God, and God was the word,
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Ed,We've both seen how Google translated Psalm 2:7.
Try it on John 8:44 and post the results.
mike
Hi Mike, OK…John 8:44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do.
He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no
truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.(Google) ye the Father of the devil Tas biscuits and desire his father poiesis YOU want not one murderer
from the beginning and in the truth that he quite a estiken He is not truth in him when he
lalῇ falsehood speaks from its own, because a liar is he and his fatherSometimes it needs a little help in translating. But you can hardly say it has bias.
You can still extract (the essence) of the translation; can you not?
I can adjust the English, but you might call that 'spin'?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 13 2011,04:19) Jack, Ed and Keith, ENOUGH ALREADY. I have posed ONE SIMPLE YES OR NO QUESTION. Which of you will be the first one to answer it HONESTLY?
The question:
Is it a COMPLETE GRAMMATICAL IMPOSSIBILITY FOR THE GREEK WORDS IN 1:1c TO BE TRANSLATED AS “a god”?The answer is “NO”, but which one of you will be the first to honestly admit this?
mike
Hi Mike,Did you not understand my answer?
There should NO REASON to ask me again!God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 12 2011,11:28) Quote Jack says…WE HAVE ALREADY ANSWERED YOU! THE ANSWER IS NO!
Yeah, but I said “HONESTLY”, Jack.
Hi everyoneThis is proof that no matter what answer we give Mike it is not an answer unless it agrees with him!
Whenever someone disagrees with Mikes answer then they are dishonest according to Mike.
WJ
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