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Quote (Paladin @ May 31 2011,08:03) Then Paul ties it together for us –
10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.
Where again did Paul say he ascended to? There's your answer to “where I was before”, Paladin. The point Jesus made was, “What? You're freaked out because I said I came down from heaven? What are you going to think when you see me go back up there?”If you refuse to see that, there's nothing more I can do. I won't continue to throw pearls your way, just to watch you defiantly insist that they're stones.
Btw, John was quoting the words Jesus said in 6:62.
Take care Paladin,
mikeQuote (kerwin @ May 31 2011,00:24) To all, Quote John 9 (King James Version) 30The man answered and said unto them, Why herein is a marvellous thing, that ye know not from whence he is, and yet he hath opened mine eyes.
31Now we know that God heareth not sinners: but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth.
32Since the world began was it not heard that any man opened the eyes of one that was born blind.
33If this man were not of God, he could do nothing.
In what way does the speaker believe Jesus came from God?
Hi Kerwin,I believe this man was saying Jesus is “from God” in the way that John the Baptist was sent from God. At the time this man was speaking these words, he didn't even know who Jesus was. It was not until verse 37 that he realized Jesus was the Son of Man.
I wouldn't use this as a pre-existent scripture, for this guy obviously had no clue about that, and was not referring to pre-existence when he said Jesus was “from God”.
peace,
mikeTo all,
I agree that the man in John 9:30-33 stated that Jesus was of God becausehe believed Jesus was a man of God, attested through his righteous miracles.
I do not state that that all miracles are testimony of that the one they are performed through is from God because God tells us that miracles are performed through the teachers of false gods in order to test our heart, Deuteronomy 13:1-3.
I am convinced that all good things; includeing but not limited to Jesus, the Prophets, the Patriarchs, and righteous miracles; come frorm God.
Wispring brings up a good point.
Quote (terraricca @ June 01 2011,01:42) Quote (kerwin @ June 01 2011,00:24) To all, Quote John 9 (King James Version) 30The man answered and said unto them, Why herein is a marvellous thing, that ye know not from whence he is, and yet he hath opened mine eyes.
31Now we know that God heareth not sinners: but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth.
32Since the world began was it not heard that any man opened the eyes of one that was born blind.
33If this man were not of God, he could do nothing.
In what way does the speaker believe Jesus came from God?
kerwinthis man talks from ;since the beginning of the world of men does he not,
and John says Christ is from the beginning of creation,
and the man talk s about what he knows and have learned,
the Pharisees knew better ,
Pierre
Hello T;John's “beginning” was not the beginning of creation, it was the beginning of the gospel, when the disciples were there –
“But these things have I told you, that when the time shall come, ye may remember that I told you of them. And these things I said not unto you at the beginning, because I was with you.” [John 16:4]
Argument has been made that John's “beginning” is a reflection of the Genesis account – “In the beginning God…”
But does scripture demonstrate this to be the case?Two arguments show that this is not so.
1). Argument is made that John is saying that in the beginning was Jesus, wearing the name “logos.” But the logos was not a name in the beginning of creation. It was still a “new” name in 69 a.d. when John penned the apokalypse which God gave to Jesus. And in it, he introduced the logos as a “NEW NAME,” where John used the Greek word “kainon” which is an accusative neuter singular adjective which means “New, not previously known, unused. So Jesus could NOT have been understood in scripture to be the logos of God in the beginning of creation. Neither could John have referenced the “logos” as “in the beginning of creation” because it was still NEW in 69 a.d.
2) The Holy spirit inspired New Testament writers to reference the “beginning of creation” when it was applicable.
Mark 10:6 But from the [arxees ktisews] beginning of the creation God [epoieesen] made them male and female.
Mark 13:19 For in those days shall be affliction, such as was not from the [arxees ktisews] beginning of the creation which God [ektisen] created unto this time, neither shall be.
2 Peter 3:4 And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the [arxees ktisews] beginning of the creation.
Revelation 3:14 And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the [ee arxee tees ktisews tou theou] beginning of the creation of God;
Mark, Peter, and yes, even John had already had experience referencing the “beginning of creation.” They already knew from prior authorship and from inspiration, how to express “arxees ktisews” if the beginning of creation is what they want to express.
But John made two changes when he wrote his gospel.
1). He wrote [en arxee] and left off [ktisews] which he had previously expressed, because he now has a different [arxee] in mind.It is the same [arxee] he references in John 15:27 “And ye also shall bear witness, because ye have been with me from (the) [arxees] beginning.”
It is the same [arxee] he references in John 16:4 “But these things have I told you, that when the time shall come, ye may remember that I told you of them. And these things I said not unto you at (the) [arxees] beginning, because I was with you.”
John is here recording Jesus own testimony. Do you really think Jesus doesn't know how to reference “arxees ktisews?” Or do you really think John is not being inspired by the Holy Spirit to write what he means to express?
2) Remember back up the page, in Mark 10:6, the reference to “made?” He “made them male and female.” “Made” in that reference is [epoieesen].
Compare it with John 1:3 and you will see it is not the same meaning. John 1:3 records “All things were [egeneto] made by him; and without him was not any thing [egeneto] made that was [gegonen] made.
Egeneto and gegonen both derive from ginomai, which means to become, as in “Herod and Pilate were made friends, for they had been at enmity before that day.”
John is not saying the same thing in 1:1-3 that he expresses elsewhere in his writings, and that Mark and Mathew expresses in their writings and he knows the difference.
Quote (942767 @ June 01 2011,05:21) Hi Brother Paladin: How can what you say here be true:
Quote This is reinforced by Peter – His spirit descended below the grave level to visit the spirits imprisoned in the days of Noah. When Jesus said at his death:
Quote Luk 23:46 And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost. Love in Christ,
Marty
“For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: 19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water. 21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: 22 Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.”Quote (942767 @ June 01 2011,05:21) Hi Brother Paladin: How can what you say here be true:
Quote This is reinforced by Peter – His spirit descended below the grave level to visit the spirits imprisoned in the days of Noah. When Jesus said at his death:
Quote Luk 23:46 And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost. Love in Christ,
Marty
After the resurrection, Jesus said “I have not yet been to my father…” so we know Peter's reference was to the time Jesus was in the grave.Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 01 2011,10:48) Quote (Paladin @ May 31 2011,08:03) Then Paul ties it together for us –
10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.
Where again did Paul say he ascended to? There's your answer to “where I was before”, Paladin. The point Jesus made was, “What? You're freaked out because I said I came down from heaven? What are you going to think when you see me go back up there?”If you refuse to see that, there's nothing more I can do. I won't continue to throw pearls your way, just to watch you defiantly insist that they're stones.
Take care Paladin,
mike
Where did Jeses descend “FIRST” Mike?From heaven to earth, or from earth to the deepest part of the earth?
Quote Paul tells us that concerning the ascension of Jesus
“Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.”But Paul tells us of something Jesus did first, –
Eph 4:9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended [FIRST into the lower parts of the earth?Quote Btw, John was quoting the words Jesus said in 6:62. John 6:62 “What and if ye shall [thewreete] see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?”
[thewreete = subjunctive present active 2nd person plural form of the verb thewrew]And who do you suppose Luke was quoting in Luke 24:39?
“Behold my hands and my feet, that it is I myself: handle me, and see; for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye [thewreite] see me have.”
[thewreite = indicative present active 2nd person plural form of the verb thewrew]Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 31 2011,02:48) Quote (Wispring @ May 29 2011,22:36) Hi Paladin and Mike,
I have been doing some research on the use of the word para. While it is true that in english the words from and by can mean essentially the same thing, in greek, the “from” meaning is a particular point of departure and the “by” is a frame of reference that means “close to” in physical reality when referring to things in physical reality or on account of in casual(less formal) use.Quote a primary preposition; properly, near; i.e. (with genitive case) from beside (literally or figuratively), (with dative case) at (or in) the vicinity of (objectively or subjectively), (with accusative case) to the proximity with (local (especially beyond or opposed to) or causal (on account of)…by, in the sight of, than, (there-)fore, with. In compounds it retains the same variety of application.
This is from my ISA program strong's database. What I am understanding is that the word “from” is used in the genetive case. At or in in the dative case. By in the accusative case.
I will readily admit I am an ultra-beginner in Greek. That being said do you think I am understanding the english in this strong's explanation of how the word para is used in greek and translated to english?With Love and love,
Wispring
Hi Wispring,In John 1:6, “God” is genitive. So para would literally mean “from beside” God. But since there is no indication in the scriptures that John the Baptist was LITERALLY sent from beside God, I assume it is figurative. When many translations render it as “sent from God”, the understanding is also figurative, and not intended to mean John was sent directly from the literal presence of God Himself.
But it could also be a casual use, which has the conotation of “on account of”. John the Baptist was sent “on account of God”, or “by God”.
I think you overlooked this casual meaning of “by”. So, just like in English, “by” could mean “close proximity” or “on account of”.
Therefore, 1:6 could be faithfully translated as “sent from God” or “sent by God”. Either way, it is clear that God did the sending, but from what else we know about John the Baptist, it is unlikely that he was sent literally from the presence of God.
Shall we break down John 17:5 the same way, so we can see whether or not a figurative understanding of para is supported in that scripture?
mike
John 17:5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.And………kai = co-ordinating conjunction
now………nun = adverb
glorify…..doxason = *imperative aor act 2s v
me……….me (egw) = 1s acc pronoun
thou……..su = nom 2s pronoun
Father……pater = voc masc s noun
with……..para = dat preposition
thyself…..seautw = dat masc 2s pronoun
the….tee (o`) = dat fem s def art
glory…….doxee = dat fem s noun
which…….ee = dat fem s rel pronominal adj
I had…….eixon = ind *imperfect act 1s v
before……pro = *gen preposition……………….
the………tou (o`) = *gen neut s def art……….!
the………ton (o`) = acc masc s def art… !
world…….kosmon = acc masc s noun…….! !
to be…….einai (eimi) = pres act *gen infinitive.!
with……..para = dat preposition
thee……..soi (su) = dat 2s pronoun[NOTE: Imperfect Indicative [eixon] describes a continuing action occuring in the past. If in fact, Jesus had prior glory, and now does not, but asks to have it again, the tense would not be “imperfect” for the “imperfect” references action that was continuous. Had John used the “perfect” tense, it would have been an action that was brought to completion, with present continuous results. But John did not use the “perfect” tense of echo [esxeeka; 2 Cor 2:13][esxeekamen, Ro 5:2; II Co 1:9][esxeeken, II Co 7:5][esxeekota, Mark 5:15].
If John intended to convey a prehistoric glory Jesus once had, but no longer has, as in “discontinued,” it would be aorist, simple completed action form of echo;[esxomen, I Thes 1:9]; or [esxon; Mat 22:28;Mark 12:23;Luke 20:33; Philemon 1:7;Jude 1:3].
Bu John used the imperfect form of echo, which constitutes an action occuring without discontinuity in the past.
[NOTE: Present Infinitive [“einai”] stresses the fact the world is in the proccess of continuous being; therefore “was” is inappropriate translation; should be “before the world that is.”
[NOTE: Acts 12:6 pro tees thuras “before the door”][Prep w/gen]
[NOTE: Mat 11:10 pro prwsopou sou “before thy face”][prep w/gen]The terminology in John 17:5 references a world already created, and the glory promised to Jesus was “before” the whole world, (as in “right before our eyes).
John 17:5 is a reference to a prophecy, not recorded as far as I know, but certainly alluded to in Hebrews – “Looking unto Jesus the author and finisher of our faith; who for the joy that was set before him endured the cross, despising the shame, and is set down at the right hand of the throne of God.” [Heb 12:2]
“And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I have with thee before the world.”
For comparison, Scripture references for the imperfect form “eixon” are:
Mat 14:5; 21:46; 27:16
Mark 3:10; 8:7; 8:14; 11:32
Luke 4:40; 19:20
John 17:5
Acts 2:44; 4:14; 13:5; 25:19
Heb 11:15
3 John 1:13
Rev 6:9; 9:8,9;Quote (Paladin @ June 01 2011,23:53) Quote (942767 @ June 01 2011,05:21) Hi Brother Paladin: How can what you say here be true:
Quote This is reinforced by Peter – His spirit descended below the grave level to visit the spirits imprisoned in the days of Noah. When Jesus said at his death:
Quote Luk 23:46 And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost. Love in Christ,
Marty
“For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: 19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water. 21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: 22 Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.”
Hi Brother:Undoubtedly, these scriptures in 1 Peter are not the easiest to understand, but no, dead men do not preach. Jesus was dead. To be quickened by the Spirit, makes reference to when he was raised from the dead or born again. Quickened or made alive by the the Spirit.
Jesus gave commandments by the Holy Spirit before his death and also after his resurrection from the dead, and when we speak of spirits in prison, we are speaking of all of humanity who are in sin.
In addition, why would he want to speak to those who have already been judged by the flood. They are dead. There is no benefit to preaching to them now. Noah preached to them while he was building the ark.
Love in Christ,
MartyQuote (Paladin @ June 02 2011,01:16) mikeboll64,May wrote:In John 1:6, “God” is genitive. So para would literally mean “from beside” God. But since there is no indication in the scriptures that John the Baptist was LITERALLY sent from beside God, I assume it is figurative. When many translations render it as “sent from God”, the understanding is also figurative, and not intended to mean John was sent directly from the literal presence of God Himself.
But it could also be a casual use, which has the conotation of “on account of”. John the Baptist was sent “on account of God”, or “by God”.
I think you overlooked this casual meaning of “by”. So, just like in English, “by” could mean “close proximity” or “on account of”.
Therefore, 1:6 could be faithfully translated as “sent from God” or “sent by God”. Either way, it is clear that God did the sending, but from what else we know about John the Baptist, it is unlikely that he was sent literally from the presence of God.
John 17:5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me [para = dative]*with thine own self with the glory which I had [para = dative]*with thee before the world was.
Luke 1:30 And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour [para = dative] *with God.[God = dat]
Whatever you say about “para” in John 17:5 must also apply to Luke 1:30, or a reasonable explanation as to why not, other than “I have a doctrine to protect.” And no, Mike, I am not accusing you of having said any such nonsense; it is simply my evaluation of the issue. Each of us has an understanding to defend, and they cannot both be correct from the scriptures. One can be scriptural, the other doctrinal.
Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,01:37) [/quote] Quote (Paladin @ June 01 2011,23:53) Quote (942767 @ June 01 2011,05:21) Hi Brother Paladin: How can what you say here be true:
Quote This is reinforced by Peter – His spirit descended below the grave level to visit the spirits imprisoned in the days of Noah. When Jesus said at his death:
Quote Luk 23:46 And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit: and having said thus, he gave up the ghost. Love in Christ,
Marty“For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit: 19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water. 21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ: 22 Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.”
Hi Brother:
Undoubtedly, these scriptures in 1 Peter are not the easiest to understand,
What? You think me a novice?
Quote but no, dead men do not preach. And you know this how? Did not Abel's blood “cry out from the ground?”
Look again at the scriptures my friend –
Was Jesus Dead?
“being put to death in the flesh,” – well he certainly was killed.But was he dead? “but quickened by the Spirit:” shows he did not remain body and spirit in the grave.
But being “quickened (made alive) by the spirit” he went to preach to those spirits that comingled with daughters of men in Genesis six; “19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison; 20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing,”
This is not a reference to “all of humanity who are in sin.”
Quote In addition, why would he want to speak to those who have already been judged by the flood. They are dead. There is no benefit to preaching to them now. Noah preached to them while he was building the ark. Because they were kept in darkness, not understanding why they were destroyed, becasue if they had been told at that time, Satan would have understood and would not have crucified Jesus. So it was kept secret until the death of Jesus, at which time Jesus himself went to visit those spirits and explain it to them. Remember, if God had not destroyed them, devils, who had once stood in the presence of God, and repudiate dhim, would have had a second chance. As it was, they do not, while thos emen who have never seen God, do, by repentance and faith.
Hi Brother:
You ask:
Quote What? You think me a novice? No, I do not, but does that mean that you know everything or that you could not possibly be wrong on this issue.
I am not a novice either. I have been saved and studying the scriptures and being corrected by God and asking to be corrected if I am wrong for 31 years.
Jesus was dead, and dead men do not preach.
Love in Christ,
MartyHi Brother Paladin:
Jesus may have gone and preached to the spirits in prison after his resurrection from the dead, and by spirits in prison, this may refer to these referenced by the following scriptures:
Quote Jude 1:6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. Quote 2 Peter 2:4For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment; I said that preaching to the spirits in prison meant that he preached to humanity that was in sin because of the following scriptures:
Quote 1 Peter 4
1Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin;2That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God.
3For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries:
4Wherein they think it strange that ye run not with them to the same excess of riot, speaking evil of you:
5Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead.
6For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
Love in Christ,
MartyHi Brother Paladin:
I am looking at a Greek interlinear, and according to what I read here the literal reading of what was said in 1 Peter 3:17-19 is as follows:
1:17For (it is) better, if the will of God wills(it), to suffer(for) doing good than (for) doing evil. 18Because even Christ once suffered concerning sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, indeed being put to death in (the) flesh, but made alive in the Spirit; 19in which also, going into the spirits in prison, he then proclaimed to the disobeying ones, when once the long-suffering of God waited in (the) days of Noah, an ark having been prepared in which a few, that is eight souls, were saved through water.
Love in Christ,
MartyQuote (942767 @ June 02 2011,05:23) Hi Brother: You ask:
Quote What? You think me a novice? No, I do not, but does that mean that you know everything or that you could not possibly be wrong on this issue.
Why are you changing the standard of your previous post?
Quote Undoubtedly, these scriptures in 1 Peter are not the easiest to understand How does this morph into
Quote but does that mean that you know everything or that you could not possibly be wrong on this issue I fail to understand why so many posters on this board think there is somehow something inherently wrong about someone being right.
And if you have been on several boards you will recognize,
“could you possibly be wrong” is a trick question, leading to all kinds of garbage. Everyone can possibly be wrong about many things, but that has nothing to do with the reality of the issues in question. On this, I am not wrong. And no, that does not mean I “know everything;” another trap statement. If I deny knowing everything, someone will invariably point out,
“well how do you know this is not one of those things you don't know about?” And the discussion goes downhill from there. So, please, refrain from the tricks and traps of “do you know everything?”Quote I am not a novice either. I have been saved and studying the scriptures and being corrected by God and asking to be corrected if I am wrong for 31 years. Jesus was dead, and dead men do not preach.
Yes, they do.
Mat 22:32 “God is not the God of the dead, but of the living.”How can you say the dead cannot preach when Peter says Jesus, while in the grave, went and preached to the spirits in prison?
Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,06:28) Hi Brother Paladin: Jesus may have gone and preached to the spirits in prison after his resurrection from the dead, and by spirits in prison, this may refer to these referenced by the following scriptures:
Quote Jude 1:6 And the angels which kept not their first estate, but left their own habitation, he hath reserved in everlasting chains under darkness unto the judgment of the great day. Quote 2 Peter 2:4For if God spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgment; I said that preaching to the spirits in prison meant that he preached to humanity that was in sin because of the following scriptures:
Quote 1 Peter 4
1Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin;2That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God.
3For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries:
4Wherein they think it strange that ye run not with them to the same excess of riot, speaking evil of you:
5Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead.
6For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
Love in Christ,
Marty
Right on Marty-But those to whom Jesus preached, is limited to those who were unrighteous during the days of Noah, while the boat was preparing.
Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,07:59) Hi Brother Paladin: I am looking at a Greek interlinear, and according to what I read here the literal reading of what was said in 1 Peter 3:17-19 is as follows:
1:17For (it is) better, if the will of God wills(it), to suffer(for) doing good than (for) doing evil. 18Because even Christ once suffered concerning sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, indeed being put to death in (the) flesh, but made alive in the Spirit; 19in which also, going into the spirits in prison, he then proclaimed to the disobeying ones, when once the long-suffering of God waited in (the) days of Noah, an ark having been prepared in which a few, that is eight souls, were saved through water.
Love in Christ,
Marty
Right brother;That is the focus and limit of Jesus' preaching while in the spirit while dead.
Hi Brother Paladin:
You may be right, but I cannot say that I agree with you at time, but I am praying that God will give me understanding, and so, I will leave it at that at this time.
Love in Christ,
MartyHi Brother Paladin:
I am still praying, but this is a comment made by someone about these scriptures, and this is what I believe is meant:
It was through this same Spirit that the proclamation was made to those who lived in the days of Noah. Does this mean that Christ went to make this proclamation after His resurrection? No. It simply means that the same Spirit that accounted for the resurrection also accounted for the preaching to these people in the days of Noah.
Source: http://www.angelfire.com/nt/theology/1pt3-18.html
Love in Christ,
Marty
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