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- July 23, 2012 at 5:06 am#306682LightenupParticipant
Pierre,
You say that God almighty is Lord of lords and you say that Christ is Lord of lords…well, either they are the same person or God almighty is not the Lord of lords anymore. You seem to believe that God almighty is not the Lord of lords anymore but Christ is given that place instead. That is called 'Pierre is believing a delusion.'
July 23, 2012 at 5:22 am#306683terrariccaParticipantQuote (Lightenup @ July 23 2012,23:06) Pierre, You say that God almighty is Lord of lords and you say that Christ is Lord of lords…well, either they are the same person or God almighty is not the Lord of lords anymore. You seem to believe that God almighty is not the Lord of lords anymore but Christ is given that place instead. That is called 'Pierre is believing a delusion.'
KathiSo you do not remember ?
July 23, 2012 at 4:26 pm#306720LightenupParticipantPierre,
You will have to find someone else to play 20 questions with. I'm way too busy for child's play.Take care!
July 24, 2012 at 12:22 am#306805mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Lightenup @ July 22 2012,23:06) You say that God almighty is Lord of lords and you say that Christ is Lord of lords…well, either they are the same person or God almighty is not the Lord of lords anymore.
King David was a Lord over other lords as well. Would that mean that during his time on earth, he was the same person as Jesus and God?Or is it possible that more than one being who is a Lord over other lords can exist at the same time?
July 24, 2012 at 12:39 am#306808terrariccaParticipantQuote (Lightenup @ July 24 2012,10:26) Pierre,
You will have to find someone else to play 20 questions with. I'm way too busy for child's play.Take care!
yes momJuly 24, 2012 at 12:43 am#306809terrariccaParticipantQuote (Lightenup @ July 23 2012,23:06) Pierre, You say that God almighty is Lord of lords and you say that Christ is Lord of lords…well, either they are the same person or God almighty is not the Lord of lords anymore. You seem to believe that God almighty is not the Lord of lords anymore but Christ is given that place instead. That is called 'Pierre is believing a delusion.'
kathinow listen good I will repeat what I said to you many moons ago;
if Christ is LORD of lords ,why would it not be that God is Lord of lords ,if he would not be then Christ would not be subjected to his father right ?? who is Lord over him ,is this so difficult to understand ?
July 24, 2012 at 2:34 am#306838mikeboll64BlockedYes Kathi,
Who IS Lord over Jesus? And how about the Father? Is Jesus His Lord?
July 24, 2012 at 5:01 am#306857LightenupParticipantPierre,
Do you mean 'is' when you write 'his?' If so, can you rewrite your comment with 'is' instead of 'his?' Thanks!July 24, 2012 at 5:09 am#306858LightenupParticipantMike,
Jesus is the Lord of lords, not a Lord of lords. There lies a big difference between a man who has authority and is a lord, or even a lord over other lords and Jesus as the Lord of lords. The Lord of lords is under the authority of the Father who is the God of gods. The Father is not called the Lord of lords, Jehovah is called Lord of lords in reference to the Son in the unity.July 24, 2012 at 5:35 am#306860terrariccaParticipantQuote (Lightenup @ July 24 2012,23:01) Pierre,
Do you mean 'is' when you write 'his?' If so, can you rewrite your comment with 'is' instead of 'his?' Thanks!
I have correct itJuly 24, 2012 at 6:01 am#306873LightenupParticipantPierre,
Jesus, no matter the title, is subject to the Father because He, Jesus, is not the Father but the Son of the Father. A son would naturally be subject to his father. A title does not change that fact.July 24, 2012 at 6:29 am#306875terrariccaParticipantQuote (Lightenup @ July 25 2012,00:01) Pierre,
Jesus, no matter the title, is subject to the Father because He, Jesus, is not the Father but the Son of the Father. A son would naturally be subject to his father. A title does not change that fact.
KathiThose are the reason that Christ is not Jehovah only the father his Jehovah,
All the titles you can find in scriptures are first given to God the father then after to Christ ,why ?
Because all things are only possible because of the will of God the father,Christ the son never runs over his father head ,so who is the savior ? God his,Christ his in the second place,it is God that send his son ,it is God that makes all thing possible no matter what
July 24, 2012 at 6:41 am#306876LightenupParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ July 23 2012,19:22) Quote (Lightenup @ July 22 2012,23:06) You say that God almighty is Lord of lords and you say that Christ is Lord of lords…well, either they are the same person or God almighty is not the Lord of lords anymore.
King David was a Lord over other lords as well. Would that mean that during his time on earth, he was the same person as Jesus and God?Or is it possible that more than one being who is a Lord over other lords can exist at the same time?
Mike,
Can you show me where King David was called 'Lord' where it was the same Hebrew word for the first 'Lord' in Lord of lords of Deuteronomy 10:17.I don't recall him being called Lord (capital L), maybe lord (small l) but I can't recall that either.
From what I remember, the capital L Lord is a different Hebrew word than the small l lord.
Remember that David calls Jesus 'my Lord.' So obviously, David had Jesus as his Lord and so David was not the Lord of lords.
July 24, 2012 at 6:42 am#306877LightenupParticipantPierre,
There are two in the unity. One being over the other does not discount that.July 24, 2012 at 11:01 pm#306949mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Lightenup @ July 24 2012,00:41) Mike,
Can you show me where King David was called 'Lord' where it was the same Hebrew word for the first 'Lord' in Lord of lords of Deuteronomy 10:17.
Are we doing what I mentioned a couple pages ago, Kathi? Are we now trying to force individual snippets of scripture to teach our doctrine?You and I have already had the discussion about “adonay” versus “adown” before. It is said that the word “adonay” is used ONLY of God, but we found a couple verses where that word was used of men.
But tell me, is the “Lord of lords” in Psalm 136:3 the same “Lord of lords” who is mentioned in Deut 10:17? I assume so, and that verse doesn't use “adonay”. Nor is there a difference in the LXX or the NT, where it is always “kurios of kurios”.
Now, are you trying to refute the fact that King David was also a Lord of other lords? If so, I will happily show you the scriptures again.
July 24, 2012 at 11:04 pm#306950mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Lightenup @ July 23 2012,23:09) The Lord of lords is under the authority of the Father who is the God of gods
So then the Father is the Lord of the Son as well as the God of the Son, right?The one with the authority is the “lord”. The one who is under that authority is the “servant”. These match up perfectly with the rest of scripture, Kathi. Jesus is the servant of his Lord and God.
July 24, 2012 at 11:11 pm#306952terrariccaParticipantQuote (Lightenup @ July 25 2012,00:42) Pierre,
There are two in the unity. One being over the other does not discount that.
yeah, just like eggs and oil and soon you have mayonaise as one unit rightJuly 24, 2012 at 11:33 pm#306957LightenupParticipantMike,
Is Jesus, David's Lord, yes or no?
Is David ever called or written as 'Lord of lords' as his name, yes or no?July 24, 2012 at 11:34 pm#306958LightenupParticipantNo Pierre,
Like Father and Son. No need to add to scripture.July 24, 2012 at 11:44 pm#306963terrariccaParticipantQuote (Lightenup @ July 25 2012,17:34) No Pierre,
Like Father and Son. No need to add to scripture.
kathiso you agree then that God was not a father at one point
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