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Can modern English be more accurate then both Hebrew and Greek?
Can English address many believed doctrinal misconceptions?Example #1. The Hebrew use of the word “Adam”. (Genesis 5:2)
In modern English we have the collective form of the word man: “Mankind”.Example #2. The Hebrew use of the word “gods”. (Psalm 82:6)
In modern English we have the possessive form of the word God: “God's”.Example #3. The Hebrew [אֲדֹנָי] Âd-ô-nây & the Greek [κύριος] ku-ri-os
In modern English we have the possessive form of the word Lord: “Owner”.The purpose of this thread is to expose the many FALSE DOCTRINES!
But evil men and seducers shall wax worse and worse,
deceiving, and being deceived. (2Tm.3:13)Eph.4:14 That we henceforth be no more children, tossed to and fro,
and carried about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men,
and cunning craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgHi Everyone,
More modern English words always seem to get ignored,
when the goal is to promote FALSE doctrines; opting
instead for: rudimentary philosophy. (Col. 2:8)Giving philosophy examples to explain a principal of a doctrine,
does IN NO WAY make the believed doctrine become a Biblical fact!I see over and over again people say… “I now have proved to you”,
based exclusively on their use of rudimentary philosophy examples.
This thread should be used to dismantle rudimentary philosophy,
using many counter examples to refute these FALSE doctrines!God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote Example #1. The Hebrew use of the word “Adam”. (Genesis 5:2)
In modern English we have the collective form of the word man: “Mankind”.Example #2. The Hebrew use of the word “gods”. (Psalm 82:6)
In modern English we have the possessive form of the word God: “God's”.Ed,
While example 1 is a good point, I cannot agree with 2 even though the meaning does allow for “God's” but in this case Jesus used this in John 10 “You, being a man, (AR)make Yourself out to be God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I SAID, YOU ARE GODS’? 35 If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), 36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? “To me this shows that the correct translation to this would be gods.
My opinion – Wm
Quote (seekingtruth @ Aug. 07 2011,23:53) Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 07 2011,14:25)
. Example #1. The Hebrew use of the word “Adam”. (Genesis 5:2)
In modern English we have the collective form of the word man: “Mankind”.Example #2. The Hebrew use of the word “gods”. (Psalm 82:6)
In modern English we have the possessive form of the word God: “God's”.Example #3. The Hebrew [אֲדֹנָי] Âd-ô-nây & the Greek [κύριος] ku-ri-os
In modern English we have the possessive form of the word Lord: “Owner”.
Ed,
While example 1 is a good point, I cannot agree with 2 even though the meaning does allow for “God's” but in this case Jesus used this in John 10 “You, being a man, (AR)make Yourself out to be God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I SAID, YOU ARE GODS’? 35 If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), 36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? “To me this shows that the correct translation to this would be gods.
My opinion – Wm
Hi Wm,1Thess.5:21 Prove all things; hold fast that which is good.
ἐστέ ĕs'-tə: ye are — be, have been, belong. (Link)
Belong: as in belong to GOD, God's!
Wm, do you believe yourself to be a god? <– PLEASE ANSWER?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Aug. 07 2011,14:25)
. Example #1. The Hebrew use of the word “Adam”. (Genesis 5:2)
In modern English we have the collective form of the word man: “Mankind”.Example #2. The Hebrew use of the word “gods”. (Psalm 82:6)
In modern English we have the possessive form of the word God: “God's”.Example #3. The Hebrew [אֲדֹנָי] Âd-ô-nây & the Greek [κύριος] ku-ri-os
In modern English we have the possessive form of the word Lord: “Owner”.Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 02 2011,12:12) Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 02 2011,08:29)
Do you consider yourself a god?NO, I don't consider myself to be a god.
Hi Mike,Then you would agree with what I said to Wm (in my previous post), regarding example #2, right?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgHi Mike and Wm,
Here's more Scriptural backing…
1Corinthians 6:20 For ye are bought with a price:
therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgEd,
You misunderstood me, I agree that 1Corinthians 6:20 is possessive, I agree that the word used in Psalm 82:6 could mean possessive but JESUS SAID “33 The Jews replied, We are not going to stone You for a good act, but for blasphemy, because You, a mere Man, make Yourself [out to be] God.34 Jesus answered, Is it not written in your Law, I said, You are gods? 35 So men are called gods [by the Law], men to whom God's message came–and the Scripture cannot be set aside or cancelled or broken or annulled–36[If that is true] do you say of the One Whom the Father consecrated and dedicated and set apart for Himself and sent into the world, You are blaspheming, because I said, I am the Son of God?” it seems to imply multiple not possessive (once again Jesus' words not mine).I also agree with your premise that the English translation can offer clarity in some cases, but the inverse is also true English can confuse. From what I understand we use one word love for 5 different Hebrew words for love.
My opinion – Wm
Quote (seekingtruth @ Aug. 07 2011,07:53) Quote Example #1. The Hebrew use of the word “Adam”. (Genesis 5:2)
In modern English we have the collective form of the word man: “Mankind”.Example #2. The Hebrew use of the word “gods”. (Psalm 82:6)
In modern English we have the possessive form of the word God: “God's”.Ed,
While example 1 is a good point, I cannot agree with 2 even though the meaning does allow for “God's” but in this case Jesus used this in John 10 “You, being a man, (AR)make Yourself out to be God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law, ‘I SAID, YOU ARE GODS’? 35 If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be broken), 36 do you say of Him, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? “To me this shows that the correct translation to this would be gods.
My opinion – Wm
Hi William,
You are right. The Greek for the word 'gods' is written in the plural, not in the genitive which shows possession, so 'gods' is correct and 'god's/God's' is not correct in John 10:34-35. When it says 'the word of God' now that is written in the genitive form and does show possession. These things are seen clearly in the Greek grammar construction.Good discernment!
KathiWilliam,
The verse:
1 Cor 6:20 For you have been bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body.
The Greek word for 'God' is not written in the genitive form here either, and therefore does not show possession. The translation here has it correct, I believe. 'God is written in the Greek as a noun and direct object (the accusative case) of the verb 'glorify.' Greek is really pretty cool to know something about so that you can check for one's accuracy or inaccuracy as they try to lead or mislead which ever is the case.You can see that here: http://interlinearbible.org/1_corinthians/6-20.htm
Love,
KathiKathi,
Genitive, verb, accusative, noun, direct object, dangling participle… WHAT!… Can you translate that into English for me
Greek… I still do not have English down.
I'm joking of course, it seems I'm misunderstood a lot lately, perhaps I should have paid more attention to grammar in school.
Thanks Sis
Hi Ed,
I just now realized you brought me over into your new thread since I hadn't visited of my own volition.
I have just told you in the other thread what Kathi has apparently already told you in this thread.
Check for the dangling genitive, my friend.
Quote (seekingtruth @ Aug. 07 2011,20:47) Kathi,
Genitive, verb, accusative, noun, direct object, dangling participle… WHAT!… Can you translate that into English for me Greek… I still do not have English down.
I'm joking of course, it seems I'm misunderstood a lot lately, perhaps I should have paid more attention to grammar in school.
Thanks Sis
LOL William,
1 Cor 6:20 has some words added in the KJV that aren't in the older manuscripts. Compare these two versions:New American Standard Bible (©1995)
For you have been bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body.King James Bible
For ye are bought with a price: therefore glorify God in your body, and in your spirit, which are God's.The first word 'God' in both versions is written as a direct object, the second 'God's' is written in the possessive form but the last seven words in the KJV are not in the older manuscript and therefore are not added in the newer translations.
Here is what a commentator says about the added words:
Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible CommentaryQuote and in your spirit, which are God's-not in the oldest manuscripts and versions, and not needed for the sense, as the context refers mainly to the “body” (1Co 6:16, 18, 19). The “spirit” is incidentally mentioned in 1Co 6:17, which perhaps gave rise to the interpolation, at first written in the Margin, afterwards inserted in the text.
from here: http://bible.cc/1_corinthians/6-20.htm
Love to you,
KathiQuote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 08 2011,13:01) Quote (terraricca @ Aug. 08 2011,12:56)
Jas 2:19 You believe that there is one God. Good! Even the demons believe that—and shudderGood use of James 2:19, Pierre!
Hi Mike,Thank you for helping me make my point in this thread!
Both you and Wm admited that you are NOT gods.
And James 1:19 says there are no other gods!So who are these other gods that you (MikeBoll64) say exist? …apposing both Isaiah 45:5 and 45:21?
I the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me (Isaiah 45:5)
There is no God else beside me. (Isaiah 45:21)God bless
Ed J
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNo Ed,
Actually that is MY question to YOU in the other thread. Since there is no doubt that Jehovah is the God OF gods, exactly who are these gods that Jehovah is the God OF?
I know that Jesus is one of them, being the “only begotten god” (John 1:18) and the god who was with THE God in the beginning. (John 1:1)
And I know that Satan is one of them, being the god of this age. (2 Cor 4:4)
But Paul mentions that there are MANY of them, both in heaven and on earth. Who do YOU suppose they are, Ed?
mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 10 2011,12:05) No Ed, (1)Actually that is MY question to YOU in the other thread. Since there is no doubt that Jehovah is the God OF gods, exactly who are these gods that Jehovah is the God OF?
(2)I know that Jesus is one of them, being the “only begotten god” (John 1:18) and the god who was with THE God in the beginning. (John 1:1)
(3)And I know that Satan is one of them, being the god of this age. (2 Cor 4:4)
(4)But Paul mentions that there are MANY of them, both in heaven and on earth. Who do YOU suppose they are, Ed?
mike
Hi Mike,1) What a coincidence, that is my question to you.
2) John 1:1 refers to the “HolySpirit” as the “The Word”. (Link)
3) Satan is god to the children of pride, but that does not make him a god.
…satan is NO god to me! …is satan a god to you?4) Please provide us with a list as to who they are; OK?
God bless
Ed J
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgHi Ed,
YES, Satan is most definitely a god to me. He holds much sway over nature, and the affairs of human beings, not to mention the third of God's angels who followed him in his rebellion.
He is not MY god, nor would I ever worship him. But he is, nevertheless, a god, in every sense of the word.
And since I don't know who all the other gods are, I can only name Satan and Jesus. But answer this question Ed:
WHY would Jehovah ever be called “the God OF gods” if there really weren't any other gods He was the God OF?
mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 10 2011,12:44) Hi Ed, YES, Satan is most definitely a god to me. He holds much sway over nature, and the affairs of human beings, not to mention the third of God's angels who followed him in his rebellion.
He is not MY god, nor would I ever worship him. But he is, nevertheless, a god, in every sense of the word.
And since I don't know who all the other gods are, I can only name Satan and Jesus. But answer this question Ed:
WHY would Jehovah ever be called “the God OF gods” if there really weren't any other gods He was the God OF?
mike
Hi Mike,The plain and simple wording indicates that “YHVH is GOD” over all!
The term “God of gods” can NOT be used to void Isaiah 45:5 & 45:21.
You do believe what Isaiah 45:21 and Isaiah 45:5 says or do you not?God bless
Ed J
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgI believe ALL scripture, Ed.
But we've just gone through this whole discussion in the other thread. In Hosea 13:4, it is implied that Jehovah is the ONLY savior. Yet you yourself have admitted that Jehovah sent OTHER saviors. So apparently, 13:4 does not LITERALLY mean Jehovah is the ONLY savior, does it? It can't, right?
The same applies with “god”.
Isaiah 45 NIV
5 I am the LORD, and there is no other;
apart from me there is no God.21 Was it not I, the LORD?
And there is no God apart from me,Just like there could be no other savior IF NOT FOR God, there would be no other mighty beings IF NOT FOR God.
He is not saying He is LITERALLY the ONLY God period, for Jehovah Himself speaks of the gods of other nations all the time.
2 Kings 1:6
“A man came to meet us,” they replied. “And he said to us, ‘Go back to the king who sent you and tell him, “This is what the LORD says: Is it because there is no God in Israel that you are sending men to consult Baal-Zebub, the god of Ekron? Therefore you will not leave the bed you are lying on. You will certainly die!”’”Who is Baal-Zebub?
Luke 11:15
But some of them said, “By Beelzebub, the prince of demons, he is driving out demons.”11:18
If Satan is divided against himself, how can his kingdom stand? I say this because you claim that I drive out demons by Beelzebub.11:19
Now if I drive out demons by Beelzebub, by whom do your followers drive them out? So then, they will be your judges.See Ed? Beelzebub the Prince of the demons is the same Baal-Zebub who Jehovah Himself called “the god of Ekron”. This is the same exact Beelzebub that Paul calls “the god of this age” and Jesus calls “Satan”.
And not once in scripture is he ever called a “so-called god” or a “false god”. In fact, those phrases don't even exist in the original texts. They were added in later by English translators.
Satan IS a god, Ed. Jesus IS a god. Those are the scriptural FACTS of the matter. Either accept it or don't.
peace,
mikeQuote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 10 2011,14:33) I believe ALL scripture, Ed. But we've just gone through this whole discussion in the other thread. In Hosea 13:4, it is implied that Jehovah is the ONLY savior. Yet you yourself have admitted that Jehovah sent OTHER saviors.
Hi Mike,Are you implying that YHVH sent other gods; Mike?
You said I could apply my answer of other saviors to other gods.
So I humbly ask you so address all conjoint questions redirected back to you.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
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