Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 10,781 through 10,800 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #247509
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (942767 @ May 30 2011,08:58)
    Hi Mike:

    No, we did not already exist with a divine nature, and neither did Jesus.  He was born into this world and infant just like all of humanity, but unlike all of us who were born of the sperm of man, he did not go astray


    How do you make this scripture go away?

    Philippians 2:6-11 (New International Version)
    6 Who, being in very nature[a] God,
      did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
    7 rather, he made himself nothing
      by taking the very nature[b] of a servant,
      being made in human likeness.
    8 And being found in appearance as a man,

    Philippians 2:6-11 (New American Standard Bible)
    6 who, although He (A)existed in the (B)form of God, ©did not regard equality with God a thing to be [a]grasped, 7 but [b](D)emptied Himself, taking the form of a (E)bond-servant, and (F)being made in the likeness of men.
    He existed with divine nature then after emptying himself, he took on flesh nature.

    Now make that go away because it definitely stands in your way because it first says that he existed and then with what nature. What excuse do you have to nullify this?

    #247646
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 30 2011,14:03)
    We would never say, “Marty partook in human nature”, because you have never been anything but human nature, right?


    That is a good point and another indicator that Jesus existed with another nature namely divine because he partook of human nature. Likewise we can partake of divine nature.

    To partake means to join in and we generally do not consider that we have joined mankind, rather that we are mankind. But one day we will join the heavenly ranks with a body like his.

    #247657
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    T8……….Lets say you are (NOW) a partaker of the Divine Nature as all Christians should be able to say right? Now say you died and someone later were to say (ABOUT) You, though t8 existed with the divine Nature of GOD , he made himself of no reputation but took upon himself the nature of a man or servant , He did not seek (because he had the divine nature) to be equal with GOD. Does that make you a preexistent being before you exist on earth even though you had the divine Nature of GOD (IN) You while you were alive on earth?, NO IT DOES NOT, brother, IMO

    peace and love to you and yours T8……………………………………..gene

    #247706
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 01 2011,13:30)

    Quote (942767 @ May 31 2011,10:25)
    Hi Mike:

    He existed in the heart of the Father, but not as a sentient person until he was born into this world.

    But even with me who in human nature did not exist before my birth into this world, God had forseen that I would exist.

    Exist, yes, foreordained, yes, but no, not as a sentient person.  A sentient person being someone that has a mind, a will, and emotions.

    Love in Christ,
    Marty


    Hmmmm………….that's quite some “existence” eh?  :)  No mind.  No will.  No emotions.  Are you sure that could qualify as “existing”?  Seems a bit of a stretch to me.

    It's amazing that Jesus even remembered the glory HE HAD alongside God before the creation of the world, what with no mind and all.  It's even more amazing that after living with a mind and a will and emotions, that he asked to go back to the glory of a mindless, will-less, emotionless “existence” in the heart of the Father.

    Good thing for us that God exalted him to the highest honors available, instead of granting his request, huh?  :)

    Marty, your claims are transparent.  We can easily see them as the claims of a man who knows what the scriptures teach, but can't fit those teachings around his own “truth”, and so will go to humorously illogical lengths to align what the scriptures actually teach to his own doctrine.

    It's sad, really.

    peace,
    mike


    Hi Mike:

    God calls those things that are not as though they were, and so, in the heart of God, he did exist.

    Jesus said “Abraham desired to see my day and he saw it and was glad” and in 1 Peter 1 we have scripture which states that Jesus was foreordained and was manifest in God's timing.

    And so, why can't you just leave it at that. There is no scripture which states that Jesus existed as a sentient person prior to his birth into this world, but if you want to teach this doctrine, then it is up to you to support it with scripture.

    I can support what I teach with scripture, and I am glad that you acknowledge that I know the scriptures, and also, I am praying that God will correct me if I am teaching anything that is not His Word. He has corrected me many a time, but so far, he has not shown me any thing about Jesus pre-existing his birth into this world as a sentient person.

    If he does, I will be the first to come to you and say “Mike, your were right”, but so far that hasn't happened.

    Maybe you think it is sad that God hasn't shown me that what you are teaching about this matter is the truth, but maybe He hasn't because He cannot confirm a lie.

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #247708
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ June 01 2011,19:55)

    Quote (942767 @ May 30 2011,08:58)
    Hi Mike:

    No, we did not already exist with a divine nature, and neither did Jesus.  He was born into this world and infant just like all of humanity, but unlike all of us who were born of the sperm of man, he did not go astray


    How do you make this scripture go away?

    Philippians 2:6-11 (New International Version)
    6 Who, being in very nature[a] God,
      did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
    7 rather, he made himself nothing
      by taking the very nature[b] of a servant,
      being made in human likeness.
    8 And being found in appearance as a man,

    Philippians 2:6-11 (New American Standard Bible)
    6 who, although He (A)existed in the (B)form of God, ©did not regard equality with God a thing to be [a]grasped, 7 but [b](D)emptied Himself, taking the form of a (E)bond-servant, and (F)being made in the likeness of men.
    He existed with divine nature then after emptying himself, he took on flesh nature.

    Now make that go away because it definitely stands in your way because it first says that he existed and then with what nature. What excuse do you have to nullify this?


    Hi t8:

    Jesus existed in the form of God when he was anointed by God and sent into the world to begin his ministry on earth as Lord and Christ.

    And so, I am not denying those scriptures. They don't say anything about Jesus being in the form of God prior to being born into this world.

    As a matter of fact, the scriptures state:

    5Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

    6Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

    And so, who being in the form of God refers to the humble mind that Jesus had in this state.

    And so, when was he Christ Jesus, t8, and Mike?

    Quote
    Matthew 16:13When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, saying, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am?

    14And they said, Some say that thou art John the Baptist: some, Elias; and others, Jeremias, or one of the prophets.

    15He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am?

    16And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.

    17And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.

    Notice he said: Who I the Son of man am?

    There are those scriptures pertaining to his birth into this world that indicate that he was named Jesus at his birth, and so the scripture in Philippians is referring to the “mind of Christ Jesus”, and so, when do you say that he was Christ Jesus and in the form of God?

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #247711
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,18:21)
    Hi Mike:

    God calls those things that are not as though they were, and so, in the heart of God, he did exist.


    And how did JESUS have a memory of his prior “existence” in the “heart of God”, what with no brain and all?

    The PERSON Jesus asked to go back to the glory the PERSON Jesus had before the creation of the world.

    Perhaps God showed him this former “glory” he had as a “thought in His heart” through a vision or something?  If so, then why would the PERSON Jesus want to go back to having no mind, will or emotions? ???

    mike

    #247715
    SimplyForgiven
    Participant

    Hey Guess what Jesus Pre-existed! :p

    #247716
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,18:44)
    And so, when was he Christ Jesus, t8, and Mike?


    Hebrews 7
    1 This Melchizedek was king of Salem and priest of God Most High. He met Abraham returning from the defeat of the kings and blessed him, 2 and Abraham gave him a tenth of everything.

    Hi Marty,

    Abram wasn't renamed Abraham by God until AFTER the events described above took place.  Yet the writer of this scripture, knowing that he is NOW called “Abraham”, spoke as if he was already Abraham when he was blessed by Melchizedek.  What he's obviously saying is “He met [the man we NOW know as] Abraham returning from………”

    Could this also be the case with Phil 2, Marty?  Could Paul be referring to the one we NOW know as Jesus Christ in a time before he really was Jesus Christ?

    And although you keep ignoring it, I'll say it again:  If Jesus WAS a human being while being metaphorically “in the form of God”, then how could he have emptied himself and BEEN MADE in the likeness of a human being?

    It is impossible for one who IS a human being to be made INTO the likeness of a human being.

    Also, what “high and mighty” position or attitude did Jesus, as a human being, ever display that he would have had to empty himself OF at a later time?  In other words, what “aura” did Jesus ever have as a human that would have been considered “being in the form of God”?  When did he empty himself OF this “aura”?  And what is meant by the implication that he was “made in the likeness of a human being” after he emptied himself of this “aura”?

    You leave many stones unturned, Marty.  Most probably because looking beneath them will cause you to rethink your understanding of Phil 2.

    peace,
    mike

    #247726
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 03 2011,11:59)

    Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,18:21)
    Hi Mike:

    God calls those things that are not as though they were, and so, in the heart of God, he did exist.


    And how did JESUS have a memory of his prior “existence” in the “heart of God”, what with no brain and all?

    The PERSON Jesus asked to go back to the glory the PERSON Jesus had before the creation of the world.

    Perhaps God showed him this former “glory” he had as a “thought in His heart” through a vision or something?  If so, then why would the PERSON Jesus want to go back to having no mind, will or emotions?  ???

    mike


    Hi Mike:

    Let me give you a clue how he knew. After he was born, God told him about it. Do you suppose his mother also told him as how he was conceived of the Holy Ghost in her womb? Maybe, don't you think?

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #247732
    942767
    Participant

    Hi Mike:

    You say:

    Quote
    Could this also be the case with Phil 2, Marty? Could Paul be referring to the one we NOW know as Jesus Christ in a time before he really was Jesus Christ?

    There goes that vivid imagination again, Mike. I believe that the scriptures state somewhere: “All things are possible to them that believe”. Maybe this is what that scripture meant? :D

    Mike, Jesus could have let his position that God had given him in the body of Christ go to his head. He was Lord and Christ, the Only Begotten Son of God and he had the authority to forgive sins, but he did not. Instead he did not make a distinction between himself and sinners.

    The Apostle Paul in Philippians 2 is teaching the church about humility and using the life of our Lord Jesus as an example, and so, maybe it is you who need to rethink Philippians 2, and stop trying make it say something that is not there.

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #247733
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,20:35)
    Let me give you a clue how he knew. After he was born, God told him about it.


    Hi Marty,

    Okay, so I was right that you supposed God told him or showed him or whatever. Now, what was so great about “existing” inside of God's heart without a mind, will or emotions that Jesus asked to go back to that state?

    And why didn't God grant his request?

    #247734
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,21:07)

    There goes that vivid imagination again, Mike.


    Really Marty?  I showed you a scripture where it is CLEAR this happened (presumably by the same author), yet I'm “imagining things” to think it happened again?  Would it help if I found more of the same?

    Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,21:07)

    Mike, Jesus could have let his position that God had given him in the body of Christ go to his head.


    Ah, but “could have” doesn't fit Phil 2, does it?  It doesn't say Jesus could have existed in the form of God, does it?

    It says he WAS existing in the form of God.  WHEN EXACTLY on earth was he doing this, Marty?  And WHEN EXACTLY did he empty himself of this pomp?  And WHEN EXACTLY, after emptying himself of this pomp, was he made into the likeness of a human being?

    Look UNDER the stones, Marty.  Search it out.  Seek and ye shall find.  Knock and it shall be opened for you.

    (Btw, Jesus DID forgive sins on earth.)

    peace,
    mike

    #247886
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 03 2011,14:17)

    Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,20:35)
    Let me give you a clue how he knew.  After he was born, God told him about it.


    Hi Marty,

    Okay, so I was right that you supposed God told him or showed him or whatever.  Now, what was so great about “existing” inside of God's heart without a mind, will or emotions that Jesus asked to go back to that state?

    And why didn't God grant his request?


    Hi Mike:

    Jesus existed in the heart of God to be manifest to humanity in his timing, and Jesus was asking God to glorifiy him with the glory that was foreseen that he would have with the Father in his exalted position as head of the church. He says with the glory that I had because God had forseen this.

    And God, did grant his request. Did he not say that “All power over heaven and earth has been given unto him”, and that “No man can come to the Father but by him”?

    Sounds like to me that he granted his request.

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #247888
    terraricca
    Participant

    Marty

    Quote
    Jesus existed in the form of God when he was anointed by God and sent into the world to begin his ministry on earth as Lord and Christ.


    you got a scripture for this ?
    and how could a man be in a form of God ? scriptures please.(even moses was not in a form of God)

    Quote
    Let me give you a clue how he knew.  After he was born, God told him about it.  Do you suppose his mother also told him as how he was conceived of the Holy Ghost in her womb? Maybe, don't you think?

    got any scripture for this ?

    Quote
    The Apostle Paul in Philippians 2 is teaching the church about humility and using the life of our Lord Jesus as an example, and so, maybe it is you who need to rethink Philippians 2, and stop trying make it say something that is not there.

    how humble can someone be when he is poor ?
    and when his ministry starts is he any more wealthier ?

    how could you see Jesus in humility if he always was humble??

    Going from being a poor man to now become a martyr is that your way of humility??

    and show scriptures,

    those are all questions that arise because you do not believe scriptures ;Col 1:15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
    Col 1:16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.
    Col 1:17 He is before all things,

    Jn 1:2 He was with God in the beginning.
    Jn 1:3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.
    Jn 1:4 In him was life, and that life was the light of men.

    Pr 8:22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works,
    before his deeds of old;
    Pr 8:23 I was appointed from eternity,
    from the beginning, before the world began.
    Pr 8:24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth,
    when there were no springs abounding with water;
    Pr 8:25 before the mountains were settled in place,
    before the hills, I was given birth,
    Pr 8:26 before he made the earth or its fields
    or any of the dust of the world.
    Pr 8:27 I was there when he set the heavens in place,
    when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
    Pr 8:28 when he established the clouds above
    and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
    Pr 8:29 when he gave the sea its boundary

    and many more,

    let see if you have those scriptures to certified your views in Gods name .

    Pierre

    #247889
    942767
    Participant

    Hi Mike:

    Quote
    Quote (942767 @ June 02 2011,21:07)

    There goes that vivid imagination again, Mike.  

    Really Marty?  I showed you a scripture where it is CLEAR this happened (presumably by the same author), yet I'm “imagining things” to think it happened again?  Would it help if I found more of the same?

    Mike, you showed me a scripture where it happened that the author of Hebrews states that Abraham met Melchizadek and called him in this scripture Abraham although his name was still Abram when he actually met Melchizadek, but no, it would not matter if you found several more incidents because that is not the case in Philippians 2.  There is nothing that states that Jesus was some other name prior to his birth into this world which you are trying to make a case by providing these scriptures.  The scriptures states that he was called Jesus when he was born into this world.  You can go back and check the scriptures and see if this is not the case.  And so, what you are trying to imply has no merit.

    And being that the scripture in Philippians 2 clearly is speaking about the “state of mind of Jesus”.  He was in the form of God when he was Lord and Christ in his ministry on earth.  And yes, he did have the authority to forgive sins according the the below listed scripture:

    Quote
    Matthew 9:2And, behold, they brought to him a man sick of the palsy, lying on a bed: and Jesus seeing their faith said unto the sick of the palsy; Son, be of good cheer; thy sins be forgiven thee.

    3And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemeth.

    4And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts?

    5For whether is easier, to say, Thy sins be forgiven thee; or to say, Arise, and walk?

    6But that ye may know that the Son of man hath power on earth to forgive sins, (then saith he to the sick of the palsy,) Arise, take up thy bed, and go unto thine house.

    And so, now that we settled the question of when Jesus was in the form of God, that leaves us to figure out your question of “what exactly did Jesus empty himself of”, and just what the Apostle Paul means that he was “made in the likeness of men”.

    This is what the KJV states:

    Quote
    Philippians 2:5Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus:

    6Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:

    7But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:

    The fact that “he was in the form of God” was not what he wanted to promote, but rather, as these scriptures show, in humility he served God and men, and in this state of mind, although his was in the form of God by virtue of his authority as God's Lord and Christ, he obeyed God withouth sin even unto death of the cross.

    Love in Christ,
    Maraty

    #247954
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    Hi Mike:

    Jesus existed in the heart of God to be manifest to humanity in his timing, and Jesus was asking God to glorifiy him with the glory that was foreseen that he would have with the Father in his exalted position as head of the church.


    Ah, but here's another chink in your armor, Marty.  First, you assume that Jesus was asking for glory that was foreseen he would eventually have.  But that's not even close to what the scripture actually says, is it?  Nope!  Jesus is asking to be glorified again with the glory HE HAD.  Get it?  HE HAD!  Not “glory that I was PREDESTINED TO SOMEDAY HAVE”, but glory “I ALREADY HAD”.

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    He says with the glory that I had because God had forseen this.


    Whether or not GOD had “foreseen” this glory, Jesus couldn’t have rightfully called a glory that “God had foreseen” a glory that “I HAD”, could he?

    Right now, maybe God is already seeing the glory YOU will someday have when you finally see the truth about Jesus' pre-existence.  But you couldn’t right now call that “the glory I HAD”, could you?

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    And God, did grant his request.  Did he not say that “All power over heaven and earth has been given unto him”, and that “No man can come to the Father but by him”?

    Sounds like to me that he granted his request.


    Chink in the armor #2, Marty.  If God TRULY granted Jesus' request, and sent him back to the glory HE HAD, then Jesus would right now be a thought in God's heart without a will, mind or emotions.  Because THAT is the glory that YOU claim Jesus was talking about.

    mike

    #247957
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:50)

    Mike, you showed me a scripture where it happened that the author of Hebrews states that Abraham met Melchizadek and called him in this scripture Abraham although his name was still Abram when he actually met Melchizadek, but no, it would not matter if you found several more incidents because that is not the case in Philippians 2.


    I see.  So Paul could refer to someone who was LATER KNOWN AS Abraham as “Abraham” before he was actually known by that name, but he could not refer to someone who was later known as Jesus Christ as “Jesus Christ” before he was actually known by that name?  And your “proof” for this is “because that is not the case in Philippians 2”?  :)

    So this scripture is also wrong……….
    Luke 3:34
    the son of Jacob, the son of Isaac, the son of Abraham, the son of Terah, the son of Nahor,

    …………because of this scripture?
    Genesis 11:26
    After Terah had lived 70 years, he became the father of Abram, Nahor and Haran.

    Marty, if I want to speak of the ages being created through Jesus, I don't have to call him “the one who would later be known as Jesus”.  We all NOW know him as “Jesus”, just as we all NOW know Abram as Abraham.  So Luke can rightly say that Terah was the father of Abraham, even though he was born “Abram”.  And Paul can rightly attribute an event from Jesus' pre-existence to “Jesus Christ”, even though he may or may not have been called by that name/title before he became flesh.

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:50)

    He was in the form of God when he was Lord and Christ in his ministry on earth.


    Okay, so on which day of his ministry did he decide to NOT be in the form of God anymore, empty himself, and be made into the likeness of a human being?

    And how was he NOT in the likeness of a human being before he emptied himself?  Did any Apostle write about Jesus not looking like a human being?

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:50)

    And so, now that we settled the question of when Jesus was in the form of God, that leaves us to figure out your question of “what exactly did Jesus empty himself of”, and just what the Apostle Paul means that he was “made in the likeness of men”.


    Correct.  What have you come up with?

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:50)

    The fact that “he was in the form of God” was not what he wanted to promote, but rather, as these scriptures show, in humility he served God and men, and in this state of mind, although his was in the form of God by virtue of his authority as God's Lord and Christ, he obeyed God withouth sin even unto death of the cross.


    What?  ???  How does this answer either point?  WHEN did he empty himself of his “form of God”, Marty?  WHEN?

    And after doing so, what is meant by him being made in the likeness of a human being if you assert that he never was in any other likeness?

    You are dodging the points.  Please address them DIRECTLY.  I gave you the template in the other thread – maybe you should use it.  

    peace,
    mike

    #247978
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 06 2011,08:02)

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    Hi Mike:

    Jesus existed in the heart of God to be manifest to humanity in his timing, and Jesus was asking God to glorifiy him with the glory that was foreseen that he would have with the Father in his exalted position as head of the church.


    Ah, but here's another chink in your armor, Marty.  First, you assume that Jesus was asking for glory that was foreseen he would eventually have.  But that's not even close to what the scripture actually says, is it?  Nope!  Jesus is asking to be glorified again with the glory HE HAD.  Get it?  HE HAD!  Not “glory that I was PREDESTINED TO SOMEDAY HAVE”, but glory “I ALREADY HAD”.

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    He says with the glory that I had because God had forseen this.


    Whether or not GOD had “foreseen” this glory, Jesus couldn’t have rightfully called a glory that “God had foreseen” a glory that “I HAD”, could he?

    Right now, maybe God is already seeing the glory YOU will someday have when you finally see the truth about Jesus' pre-existence.  But you couldn’t right now call that “the glory I HAD”, could you?

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    And God, did grant his request.  Did he not say that “All power over heaven and earth has been given unto him”, and that “No man can come to the Father but by him”?

    Sounds like to me that he granted his request.


    Chink in the armor #2, Marty.  If God TRULY granted Jesus' request, and sent him back to the glory HE HAD, then Jesus would right now be a thought in God's heart without a will, mind or emotions.  Because THAT is the glory that YOU claim Jesus was talking about.

    mike


    Hi Mike:

    Just this question. According to you, Jesus is asking to be glorified with the glory that he had in his pre-existent state.

    Did he already have the glory that God gave him as described by the following scripture?

    Philippians 2:8And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

    9Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:

    10That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;

    11And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

    According to you, he already had this glory in his pre-existant state. Isn't that what you are saying?

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #247985
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 06 2011,08:31)

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:50)

    Mike, you showed me a scripture where it happened that the author of Hebrews states that Abraham met Melchizadek and called him in this scripture Abraham although his name was still Abram when he actually met Melchizadek, but no, it would not matter if you found several more incidents because that is not the case in Philippians 2.


    I see.  So Paul could refer to someone who was LATER KNOWN AS Abraham as “Abraham” before he was actually known by that name, but he could not refer to someone who was later known as Jesus Christ as “Jesus Christ” before he was actually known by that name?  And your “proof” for this is “because that is not the case in Philippians 2”?  :)

    So this scripture is also wrong……….
    Luke 3:34
    the son of Jacob, the son of Isaac, the son of Abraham, the son of Terah, the son of Nahor,

    …………because of this scripture?
    Genesis 11:26
    After Terah had lived 70 years, he became the father of Abram, Nahor and Haran.

    Marty, if I want to speak of the ages being created through Jesus, I don't have to call him “the one who would later be known as Jesus”.  We all NOW know him as “Jesus”, just as we all NOW know Abram as Abraham.  So Luke can rightly say that Terah was the father of Abraham, even though he was born “Abram”.  And Paul can rightly attribute an event from Jesus' pre-existence to “Jesus Christ”, even though he may or may not have been called by that name/title before he became flesh.

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:50)

    He was in the form of God when he was Lord and Christ in his ministry on earth.


    Okay, so on which day of his ministry did he decide to NOT be in the form of God anymore, empty himself, and be made into the likeness of a human being?

    And how was he NOT in the likeness of a human being before he emptied himself?  Did any Apostle write about Jesus not looking like a human being?

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:50)

    And so, now that we settled the question of when Jesus was in the form of God, that leaves us to figure out your question of “what exactly did Jesus empty himself of”, and just what the Apostle Paul means that he was “made in the likeness of men”.


    Correct.  What have you come up with?

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:50)

    The fact that “he was in the form of God” was not what he wanted to promote, but rather, as these scriptures show, in humility he served God and men, and in this state of mind, although his was in the form of God by virtue of his authority as God's Lord and Christ, he obeyed God withouth sin even unto death of the cross.


    What?  ???  How does this answer either point?  WHEN did he empty himself of his “form of God”, Marty?  WHEN?

    And after doing so, what is meant by him being made in the likeness of a human being if you assert that he never was in any other likeness?

    You are dodging the points.  Please address them DIRECTLY.  I gave you the template in the other thread – maybe you should use it.  

    peace,
    mike


    Hi Mike:

    The discussion about Abram and his name is a diversion which has nothing to do with Philippians 2.  There is nothing in the scriptures that states that Jesus was called by another name prior to his birth into this world, but as I showed you the scripture is speaking of the ” humble state of mind of Christ Jesus” and he was Christ Jesus, and I do not see anywhere in the scriptures that he was Christ Jesus prior to his advent on this earth.

    And I did not say that he stopped being in the form of God during his ministry on earth as Lord and Christ, he continued in that mininistry, but the KJV states that “he thought it not robbery to be equal with God” (He did not seek to make this the focus of his ministry, but he said that he came to serve), and the scripture is about his obedience to God in a humble state of mind even unto death on the cross.

    Here is a scripture which exemplifies what I am trying to relate to you:

    Quote
    Jhn 13:13   Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for [so] I am.  

    Jhn 13:14   If I then, [your] Lord and Master, have washed your feet; ye also ought to wash one another's feet.  

    Jhn 13:15   For I have given you an example, that ye should do as I have done to you.  

    Jhn 13:16   Verily, verily, I say unto you, The servant is not greater than his lord; neither he that is sent greater than he that sent him.  

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #247994
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (942767 @ June 05 2011,17:48)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 06 2011,08:02)

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    Hi Mike:

    Jesus existed in the heart of God to be manifest to humanity in his timing, and Jesus was asking God to glorifiy him with the glory that was foreseen that he would have with the Father in his exalted position as head of the church.


    Ah, but here's another chink in your armor, Marty.  First, you assume that Jesus was asking for glory that was foreseen he would eventually have.  But that's not even close to what the scripture actually says, is it?  Nope!  Jesus is asking to be glorified again with the glory HE HAD.  Get it?  HE HAD!  Not “glory that I was PREDESTINED TO SOMEDAY HAVE”, but glory “I ALREADY HAD”.

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    He says with the glory that I had because God had forseen this.


    Whether or not GOD had “foreseen” this glory, Jesus couldn’t have rightfully called a glory that “God had foreseen” a glory that “I HAD”, could he?

    Right now, maybe God is already seeing the glory YOU will someday have when you finally see the truth about Jesus' pre-existence.  But you couldn’t right now call that “the glory I HAD”, could you?

    Quote (942767 @ June 04 2011,18:13)
    And God, did grant his request.  Did he not say that “All power over heaven and earth has been given unto him”, and that “No man can come to the Father but by him”?

    Sounds like to me that he granted his request.


    Chink in the armor #2, Marty.  If God TRULY granted Jesus' request, and sent him back to the glory HE HAD, then Jesus would right now be a thought in God's heart without a will, mind or emotions.  Because THAT is the glory that YOU claim Jesus was talking about.

    mike


    Hi Mike:

    Just this question.  According to you, Jesus is asking to be glorified with the glory that he had in his pre-existent state.  

    Did he already have the glory that God gave him as described by the following scripture?

    Philippians 2:8And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

    9Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:

    10That at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the earth;

    11And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

    According to you, he already had this glory in his pre-existant state.  Isn't that what you are saying?

    Love in Christ,
    Marty


    Hi Marty,

    No, Jesus was raised to an even higher glory than the one he previously had – the one he asked to be returned to.

    Because of what he did, he NOW was worthy enough to open the scroll – apparently something he was not worthy of before, since they link his worthiness to his sufferings on earth.

    Now, please DIRECTLY address the shortcomings I've pointed out in your understanding.

    mike

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