Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 8,561 through 8,580 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #206712
    Arnold
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ July 29 2010,14:51)

    Quote (terraricca @ July 29 2010,06:51)

    Quote (kerwin @ July 29 2010,02:48)
    Pierre,

    You seem to speculate that Jesus is or was at one time was an immaterial being and not a human being.  Do you have any scriptures that state that?   I know of scripture that calls Jesus a human being even after his ascension but none that call him any other type of being.

    If you have no evidence that states Jesus is or was an immaterial being then what are you basing that speculation on.

    Your fellow student,

    Kerwin


    hi KW

    why you try to, to say other wise and be true,according to the scriptures and see??

    Pierre


    hi KW

    God did in a similar way ,what he did with Adam wen he create EVE,

    in the same way he took from himself to create Jesus ,Christ, the WORD, the SON of GOD,ect.

    Pierre


    Pierre!I like to address what you said about the creation of both Adam and Jesus. You say that both were created the same way…However while Jesus came literally from the Father, while Adam was created out of the dust of the earth. Check out Proverbs 8:22-30 there it states that Jesus came forth from the Father. He was the delight of His Father, a master craftsman…..Also many make the mistake thinking that it is Wisdom created/ But think that God was all wise from eternity and did not have to create wisdom….Very beautiful Scriptures explaining what went on when only the Father and the Son where present…..my take….
    Irene

    #206715
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ July 29 2010,22:58)
    Pierre,

    As for scripture that states Jesus is a human being, look at 1st Timothy 2:5 which clearly calls him a human being who after his ascension to heaven mediates between humankind and God.  I do not believe he transformed into a human being after his ascension and I know he was called The Son of Man while he walked this earth before his ascension and that title refers to those descended from human beings, i.e. human beings.  In Luke he is not spoken of before his conception except to when an angel calls him son and holy thing(one) which tells he is one set aside by God and the male offspring of Mary who herself is a human being, Luke 1:31,35 .  He is also spoken of in prophecy as the coming Anointed One though not by name.  None of these is evidence that he was an immaterial being before his conception in Mary’s womb.

    We are also told that Jesus was tempted by evil just as we are in Hebrews 4:15 and that is a point of faith as among other things Jesus stands as our example that a human being can resist all the temptations that the evil one throws at them if they live by the spirit of righteousness.

    To create Jesus God took from Mary thus making Jesus the offspring of Mary and the descendant of David who like Jesus were human beings.   In a similar way Eve could be said to be the offspring of Adam as such is the miracle of creation.

    God did give Jesus his spirit of righteousness to live by and Jesus does and thus the character of Jesus is the image of God.   This is why Jesus is called the Son of God as he was born of God’s spirit and not of a man’s desire or of natural decent, John 1:13.

    Your fellow student,

    Kerwin


    Kerwin

    what the scriptures says in the ones you quote are not in opposition to what i have said ,Just as the earth was created in 6 days ,so it is with Gods plan to bring reconciliation to men,you have to see first things first,like the beginning the Son is created ,the first of Gods work,then the angels,then look in genesis,but the plan for the son to come ,to save men and show them the way,was a long one ,maybe it could be avoided ,just like in the parable of the vineyard,

    (the only connection i can make to the birth of Jesus from a daughter of men ,is to prove that it was possible for ADAM to have a perfect offspring from EVE)

    Pierre

    #206716
    KangarooJack
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 30 2010,05:26)
    Hi All

    Just concentrate on the scripture and the way it was translated and reads…

    What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up **WHERE HE WAS BEFORE**”? John 6:62

    John 6:38-40
    For “I have come down (katabainō) from heaven, not to do my own will“, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that every one who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

    Notice nowhere does our Lord in John 6 indicate he is just the plan of the Father that came down from heaven. If it is possible for that to be conveyed in the Text the Translators could have made it so, but there is not a Bible in the world that says such.

    So if you cannot agree to its reading without inference then you look into the Greek to see why it is translated that way and in this case the tenses show that Jesus is the one doing the “descending” (katabainō) just as the Holy Spirit and the Angel did. Matt 3:16 and Matt 28:2

    The Greek for “I have come” is Strong's G2597 – katabainō which is defined…

    1) to go down, come down, descend
    a) the place from which one has come down from
    b) to come down

    In every place the word is used it is referring to a literal action by a person and not an abstract “thought or plan”“.

    katabainō  is in the “perfect” tense, and the “active voice” and the “indicative” mood!

    The perfect tense” in Greek corresponds to the perfect tense in English, and describes “an action” which is viewed as having been completed in the past, once and for all, not needing to be repeated.

    The active voice” represents the subject as the doer or performer of the action. e.g., in the sentence, “The boy hit the ball,” the boy performs the action.

    SO WHEN JESUS SAID “I HAVE COME DOWN FROM HEAVEN” THE GREEK TENSE SAYS HE IS DOING THE ACTION, THEREFORE IT CANNOT BE INTERPRETED “A THOUGHT OR A PLAN CAME DOWN FROM HEAVEN” BECAUSE THOUGHTS AND PLANS DO NOT PERFORN AN ACTION ON THEIR OWN!

    That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked at and our hands have touched–this we proclaim concerning “the Word of life“. *THE LIFE APPEARED*; we have seen it and testify to it, and we proclaim to you “the eternal life, WHICH WAS WITH THE FATHER” and has appeared to us. We proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us. And “our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ. 1 John 1:1-3

    WHO IS THE **WORD OF LIFE** THAT WAS WITH THE FATHER ???

    In the beginning was the Word, and “the Word was with God”, and the Word was God. “THE SAME WAS IN THE BEGINNING WITH GOD“. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. “IN HIM WAS LIFE AND THE LIFE WAS THE LIGHT OF MEN. John 1:1

    The Word became flesh and “made his dwelling (Greek – tabernacled) among us“. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth. John 1:14

    The scriptures say that Jesus came down from heaven and he was not of this world!

    And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; **I AM FROM ABOVE** (NOT I AM GODS PLAN FROM ABOVE): ye are of this world; **I AM NOT OF THIS WORLD**. John 8:23

    AT Robertson states…

    I am from above (egw ek twn anw eimi).
    The contrast is COMPLET IN ORIGIN AND CHARACTER, already stated in (John) 3:31, and calculated to intensify their anger.

    HE THAT COMETH FROM ABOVE” is above all: “he that is of the earth is earthly“, and speaketh of the earth: “HE THAT COMETH FROM ABOVE” is above all. John 3:31

    Blessings WJ


    Keith,

    Powerful my man! Brilliant!

    Jack

    #206717
    Arnold
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ July 29 2010,15:03)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 29 2010,12:24)
    Hi t8,

    He won't answer.  It's been months already for my question.  

    John 1:1 is pretty easy to understand.  And if the English never started using capital letters, it wouldn't even be a “proof text” at all, IMO.

    Do you know how many people believe in the trinity based solely on the two capital G translation of John 1:1?  Almost every one I've ever discussed it with.  They will eagerly admit that they don't actually understand the trinity concept, but “the Word was with God, and the Word was God” says it all for them.

    And that's a shame, because it is so clear that John calls one “THE god” and the other “god”.

    I have one bone to pick with you though, t8.  You seemed to slam the JW's translation because they add the “a”.  In your examples about “Adam” and “Devil”, the “a” just adds clarity.  Just like every translation feels free to add it twice in John 8:44 for clarity…..Satan was “a” manslayer and “a” liar.

    You can say Eve was adam, but not THE Adam.  But you can just as easily say Eve was “an” adam, but not THE Adam.

    My friend is Navajo.  My friend is “a” Navajo.

    Just my two cents on the NWT translation.  I think it makes it more clear what is really being said than just capping one G and leaving the other lower case.  And I think most people would understand that better than differentiating between “qualifying” and “identifying”.  The only problem with it is you immediately have to start explaining the many other uses of the word “god” in the scriptures and how you're not a polytheist. :)

    mike


    Yes translators do on many occasions add in the indefinite article to complete the sentence in English even though there is not such thing as an indefinite article in Greek.

    However, in this case, adding an indefinite article then translates as “the Word was another god” which I don't think is the intention of the text, and it also raises the issue of there being one True God the Father, making the other god a false god.

    Yes it is true that when Jesus said, “one of you is devil”, that it is translated as “one of you is a devil”, but the problem is also prevalent here because Jesus wasn't actually saying that Judas was an actual devil being or demon, but that his nature or character was like that of the Devil.

    So adding the indefinite article can in itself be wrong too, even though English demands it grammatically. This is one of the problems with translating from Greek to English.

    This is why we see “the Word was divine” and “what God was the Word was” in some translations. It is only the NWT (as far as I know) that says, “the Word was a god”.

    I also should say that if the Word was God or the Word was a god, both of these translations are identifying the Word. But I think neither is correct because qualifying is not the same as identifying and John 1:1c is qualifying not identifying the Word.

    However if you say that he was a god and you mean that he is god in nature, then that might be okay, but most won't understand it that way, rather they will read it as him being another god, who is not the one true God of the bible and I believe that this notion is not John's intention.


    t8   I have a question for you.  I really don't understand much about infinite article.  However when it says God in John1:1, I compare it with Hebrew 1:8 it is Jehovah God is telling Jesus (The Word of God, John 1:1and Rev. 19:13 and verse 16) But to the Son He says:”Your throne O God is forever and ever; A scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your Kingdom. etc.
    When I can compare two Scriptures, i have always believed that it is the truth.  While Jehovah God and LORD is the Almighty God while Jesus Lord (The Word of God) is the Mighty God.  In Ancient times many were called God's and Satan also is called God of this world, and is keeping us captive…. So my question is why is that wrong….Peace and Love Irene

    #206723
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ July 28 2010,22:51)

    Quote (terraricca @ July 29 2010,06:51)

    Quote (kerwin @ July 29 2010,02:48)
    Pierre,

    You seem to speculate that Jesus is or was at one time was an immaterial being and not a human being.  Do you have any scriptures that state that?   I know of scripture that calls Jesus a human being even after his ascension but none that call him any other type of being.

    If you have no evidence that states Jesus is or was an immaterial being then what are you basing that speculation on.

    Your fellow student,

    Kerwin


    hi KW

    why you try to, to say other wise and be true,according to the scriptures and see??

    Pierre


    hi KW

    God did in a similar way ,what he did with Adam wen he create EVE,

    in the same way he took from himself to create Jesus ,Christ, the WORD, the SON of GOD,ect.

    Pierre


    terraricca,
    This has really helped me differentiate between how man came about and how the Son came about.

    Man-created
    The Son of God-procreated

    You see, when one is procreated/begotten they are like the one that beget them. Since the Heavenly Father is self-sufficient, He had no need for a counterpart to have a literal offspring.

    When something is created, then they are not like the one that created them.

    It has really helped me understand the difference and see the Son as God also. God begets God…an unbegotten God and a begotten God.

    #206726
    Ed J
    Participant

    To All,

    In written grammar there is what is called the article.
    In the English we have a total of Three articles; both the
    definite and the indefinite. The word THE is the definite article.
    The definite article is used to define something or someone that is
    definite. A and AN are both indefinite articles being less specific. There
    is only one article in Hebrew
    [ה], it is definite and pronounced Hä and Hey.
    It's used twice in GOD’s Holy Name יהוה pronounced YÄ-hä-vā and spelled YHVH
    in English. There's at least 12 different articles in Greek; and all of them are definite.
    The determining factor for which one that is used is based upon whether the case is Dative,
    Nominative, Genitive, Vocative, or Accusative. Some of the Greek articles are ο, τον, του, and τω.

    Conclusion: Each and every time “an indefinite article” is used in The Scriptures it is ALWAYS used at
    the translators discretion
    ; nothing to build doctrine on! (Isaiah 55:8-9) And in like manor ALL personal
    pronouns
    (He, She, Him, Her, His & it) ALL originate form ONE GREEK WORD: [αὐτός] (autos) ow-tos'

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #206728
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 30 2010,05:26)
    What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up **WHERE HE WAS BEFORE**”? John 6:62


    Yes WJ, it is pretty obvious isn't it. Thanks for the scripture. I hadn't really noticed that one before.

    #206729

    Quote (t8 @ July 29 2010,17:38)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 30 2010,05:26)
    What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up **WHERE HE WAS BEFORE**”? John 6:62


    Yes WJ, it is pretty obvious isn't it. Thanks for the scripture. I hadn't really noticed that one before.


    Welcome :)

    WJ

    #206731
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ July 30 2010,09:22)
    To All,

    In written grammar there is what is called the article.
    In the English we have a total of Three articles; both the
    definite and the indefinite. The word THE is the definite article.
    The definite article is used to define something or someone that is
    definite. A and AN are both indefinite articles being less specific. There
    is only one article in Hebrew
    [ה], it is definite and pronounced Hä and Hey.
    It's used twice in GOD’s Holy Name יהוה pronounced YÄ-hä-vā and spelled YHVH
    in English. There's at least 12 different articles in Greek; and all of them are definite.
    The determining factor for which one that is used is based upon whether the case is Dative,
    Nominative, Genitive, Vocative, or Accusative. Some of the Greek articles are ο, τον, του, and τω.

    Conclusion: Each and every time “an indefinite article” is used in The Scriptures it is ALWAYS used at
    the translators discretion
    ; nothing to build doctrine on! (Isaiah 55:8-9) And in like manor ALL personal
    pronouns
    (He, She, Him, Her, His & it) ALL originate form ONE GREEK WORD: [αὐτός] (autos) ow-tos'

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Edj, you take great pride in making things add up, and even in this instance creating a logic shape with the text. No problem with that of course, but the most important thing is that your words are true and scriptural. That far out-weighs making numbers add up.

    After all, we are judged by our words, not our numbers.

    God bless.

    #206741
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Arnold @ July 30 2010,07:36)
    t8   I have a question for you.  I really don't understand much about infinite article.  However when it says God in John1:1, I compare it with Hebrew 1:8 it is Jehovah God is telling Jesus (The Word of God, John 1:1and Rev. 19:13 and verse 16) But to the Son He says:”Your throne O God is forever and ever; A scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your Kingdom. etc.
    When I can compare two Scriptures, i have always believed that it is the truth.  While Jehovah God and LORD is the Almighty God while Jesus Lord (The Word of God) is the Mighty God.  In Ancient times many were called God's and Satan also is called God of this world, and is keeping us captive…. So my question is why is that wrong….Peace and Love Irene


    That is a good question Irene.

    Technically speaking I agree with you that there are other gods. Even Satan is THE Theos of this world.

    But look at it like this.

    YHWH is God right?
    YHWH is the name or a name that identifies God, right.
    Satan is a name that identifies the God of this world, right?

    But theos without the article isn't identifying. Therefore if we are gods, then it is not saying that we are yhwhs or other Gods. It is saying that we are like God, or having the nature of God, or are appointed by God like judges. So we are not being identified as a theos, but being described as being like Theos or under his authority. Possessing some quality of God.

    e.g., when someone calls you an angel in English, we add in the indefinite article (an). So it goes like this. “You are 'an' angel”. Now technically speaking that has 2 meanings.

    1) You are an actual angelic being (spirit).
    2) You are like an angel.

    Obviously the second point is the correct one and this is determined by the context.

    Now if we say the same thing in English about Michael the archangel, then we can also say, “you are an angel”. Except in this case, the first point is the correct one.

    Because Greek doesn't have the word “a”, or “an” which are the indefinite articles, translators add it in to complete the thought and make it readable in English. (In Greek, you would actually say, “you are angel”.) The problem is as mentioned, you can read this in 2 ways and so you need to read the context and compare your choice with all of scripture.

    So in the case of addressing Michael the Archangel with, “you are an angel”, we know from scripture that he is an actual angel and not like an angel.

    Following on, the definite article is the word “the” and in Greek, it identifies.

    So if I say, “you are the angel”, then I am identifying a specific angel and not saying that you are an angel in general or nature, nor am I saying that you are like an angel. In John 1:1, God and the Word are both identified because theos and logos are preceded with the definite article “the”. All except the last theos in John 1:1c.

    So in John 1:1c, we have 2 choices. The Word is either “a god” as the JWs say, or “like God/divine/possessing the nature of God”.

    If Jesus is another god, that existed with YHWH God, we now have 2 gods, and I believe that this is not the desired meaning of John's text. The other meaning not only works, but it is also true because we know the Word became flesh and that the Word that became flesh is identifies as Jesus. We also know that Jesus existed in the form of God and emptied himself and took on the form of man. So therefore it is true that the Word must have been divine, which is what John 1:1c can be read as.

    #206742
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ July 30 2010,06:38)
    Hi WJ,
    You mean Jesus or the Christ?
    Jesus became the anointed one at the Jordan.
    He was conceived and born of a woman, Mary before that.


    Although technically speaking you could also say the same thing to Paul and Jude.

    Jude 1:25
    to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

    Philippians 2:5-11
    5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
    6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
    7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
    8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
    9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
    10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
    11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

    Both refer to Jesus Christ, before he was the Christ.

    Maybe it is like referring to Paul as Paul, but in the times when he was Saul? It is not incorrect in that it is the same person, but is incorrect as far as the title or name goes. Another example might be Obama. If you said, “when the president was 5 years old”, then that is not incorrect, even though he wasn't the president when he was 5.

    #206744
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (t8 @ July 30 2010,09:46)

    Quote (Ed J @ July 30 2010,09:22)
    To All,

    In written grammar there is what is called the article.
    In the English we have a total of Three articles; both the
    definite and the indefinite. The word THE is the definite article.
    The definite article is used to define something or someone that is
    definite. A and AN are both indefinite articles being less specific. There
    is only one article in Hebrew
    [ה], it is definite and pronounced Hä and Hey.
    It's used twice in GOD’s Holy Name יהוה pronounced YÄ-hä-vā and spelled YHVH
    in English. There's at least 12 different articles in Greek; and all of them are definite.
    The determining factor for which one that is used is based upon whether the case is Dative,
    Nominative, Genitive, Vocative, or Accusative. Some of the Greek articles are ο, τον, του, and τω.

    Conclusion: Each and every time “an indefinite article” is used in The Scriptures it is ALWAYS used at
    the translators discretion
    ; nothing to build doctrine on! (Isaiah 55:8-9) And in like manor ALL personal
    pronouns
    (He, She, Him, Her, His & it) ALL originate form ONE GREEK WORD: [αὐτός] (autos) ow-tos'

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Edj, you take great pride in making things add up, and even in this instance creating a logic shape with the text. No problem with that of course, but the most important thing is that your words are true and scriptural. That far out-weighs making numbers add up.

    After all, we are judged by our words, not our numbers.

    God bless.


    Hi T8,

    Thanks for the ongoing support!
    I do my best to convey what I learned
    in the 40 years that I have Studied The Bible.
    Hopefully I've helped everyone here learn a thing or two.

    Your brother
    in Christ, Jesus!
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #206745
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi,
    Of course the disciples did not see Jesus raised up to any previous place.
    They did see him taken up in his old body from the earth.
    Now the Word who is God is back with God

    #206753
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Lightenup @ July 30 2010,15:57)

    Quote (terraricca @ July 28 2010,22:51)

    Quote (terraricca @ July 29 2010,06:51)

    Quote (kerwin @ July 29 2010,02:48)
    Pierre,

    You seem to speculate that Jesus is or was at one time was an immaterial being and not a human being.  Do you have any scriptures that state that?   I know of scripture that calls Jesus a human being even after his ascension but none that call him any other type of being.

    If you have no evidence that states Jesus is or was an immaterial being then what are you basing that speculation on.

    Your fellow student,

    Kerwin


    hi KW

    why you try to, to say other wise and be true,according to the scriptures and see??

    Pierre


    hi KW

    God did in a similar way ,what he did with Adam wen he create EVE,

    in the same way he took from himself to create Jesus ,Christ, the WORD, the SON of GOD,ect.

    Pierre


    terraricca,
    This has really helped me differentiate between how man came about and how the Son came about.

    Man-created
    The Son of God-procreated

    You see, when one is procreated/begotten they are like the one that beget them.  Since the Heavenly Father is self-sufficient, He had no need for a counterpart to have a literal offspring.

    When something is created, then they are not like the one that created them.

    It has really helped me understand the difference and see the Son as God also.  God begets God…an unbegotten God and a begotten God.


    hi LU

    it is understood that God, i mean the true and only God,can make god out of any one he feel to use as is will needed,just like he did with Moses,it is this way that it make sense to understand how Jesus ,the WORD,the Christ became god according to the will of GOD his father,(Christ did not become got of his father ,he is nominate by his father,big difference)
    now it could be understand that Jesus always said ;i do my father s will,;I speak my fathers words;and also;i have been send ,and i go back to where i come from ;heaven;
    we also now understand his birth,by the intervention of God organization.

    we also understand the words Jesus said before he died,ALL IS DONE.

    the reason for Christ to come is first to accomplish the promise the scriptures made to the faithful people of old.

    and secondly to save, not the ones who know or think they know how to be saved,but to save the ones who depend totally on him and his father to have live,and so follow the only way to salvation.

    Pierre

    #206755
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (t8 @ July 29 2010,15:03)
    This is why we see “the Word was divine” and “what God was the Word was” in some translations. It is only the NWT (as far as I know) that says, “the Word was a god”.

    I also should say that if the Word was God or the Word was a god, both of these translations are identifying the Word. But I think neither is correct because qualifying is not the same as identifying and John 1:1c is qualifying not identifying the Word.

    However if you say that he was a god and you mean that he is god in nature, then that might be okay, but most won't understand it that way, rather they will read it as him being another god, who is not the one true God of the bible and I believe that this notion is not John's intention.


    Hi t8,

    Here's some other translations of John 1:1,

    1808: “and the word was a god.” The New Testament in an Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text.

    1864: “and a god was the word.” The Emphatic Diaglott, interlinear reading, by Benjamin Wilson.

    1928: “and the Word was a divine being.” La Bible du Centenaire, L’Evangile selon Jean, by Maurice Goguel.

    1935: “and the Word was divine.” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed.

    1946: “and of a divine kind was the Word.” Das Neue Testament, by Ludwig Thimme.

    1950: “and the Word was a god.” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures.

    1958: “and the Word was a God.” The New Testament, by James L. Tomanek.

    1975: “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz.

    1978: “and godlike kind was the Logos.” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Johannes Schneider.

    Just so you know.   :)

    Also, I hear what you're saying, and I'm sure Jack was right when he said my English teachers were a waste of taxpayer's money, but how is saying Jesus is “a” god an identifying statement?  Wouldn't the identity be “the Word”, and “a god” be a qualifying statement?

    I have no problem with the way you understand it, for it makes much sense.  But “god” just meant “mighty one”, and it was foretold by THE God that Jesus would be called “mighty god”, so I also don't mind the “a god” translations.

    There were many who were “a god”, but only one true “THE God”.

    Anyway, carry on with your good, informational posts. :)

    mike

    #206759
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Hi Kerwin,

    You asked:

    Quote
    Are you having difficulty with the idea that Jesus was predestined by God to be the Messiah?

    None at all my friend.  Are YOU having difficulty with the many scriptures that clearly say Jesus pre-existed?   :)

    No matter how you translate the word “para”, it is mentioned twice.  Jesus says “glorify ME in your presence with the glory I HAD in your presence”.  How do you figure he was saying “glorify my glory with the glory my glory had….”?  Or do you think it was Jesus' actual “glory” that was speaking through the man Jesus at the time?

    No matter how you slice and dice it, it CLEARLY says ME and I HAD.  And that means it is Jesus talking about himself in the near future AND at an earlier time. And during both times mentioned, he was in God's presence.

    mike

    #206760
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ July 30 2010,10:37)
    Hi,
    Of course the disciples did not see Jesus raised up to any previous place.
    They did see him taken up in his old body from the earth.
    Now the Word who is God is back with God


    Hi Nick,

    Last chance here. If you actually answer this question, I will keep conversing with you. If you choose not to, don't bother making any posts directed to me.

    How is it that Stephen was able to see the man Jesus Christ at the right hand of God, but he was only able to see THE GLORY of God, not God Himself?

    No man can see God, right? That's why Stephen only sees God's glory, not Him. But he is able to Jesus at God's right hand. He didn't see a “Word that was God” did he?

    Please answer the bolded part DIRECTLY.

    mike

    #206761
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 30 2010,11:29)
    Also, I hear what you're saying, and I'm sure Jack was right when he said my English teachers were a waste of taxpayer's money, but how is saying Jesus is “a” god an identifying statement? Wouldn't the identity be “the Word”, and “a god” be a qualifying statement?


    It is not necessarily an identifying statement, but I think most would just read it that way.

    The Word was a god, can be read in two ways.

    It is divine, or is identifying another god.

    Similarly, if I said:

    “You are an angel”, it could mean that I am calling you an angelic being or that I am likening you to an angel. In this example, you would think the latter, but not the former, as you are not actually an angelic heavenly spirit being. Not yet anyway.

    In the Word was 'theos' example, I would say that most would see it as the former, i.e., that the Word was another god with God. But we know that there is one God and all else (except evil) including the Word is of him.

    So I think John's intention was to say that there were two in the beginning or before the universe. God and the Word and the Word was divine, or of the same essence as God. I don't think he meant us to think that there was the Big God and a smaller god in the beginning.

    It might not seem like there is not much of a difference, but the outcome of saying that the Word is another God has profound consequences to the whole of scripture and seems to conflict with all statements that there is one who is identified as God and that he is the only true God. In effect, you could nullify all those other scriptures on account of that interpretation of John 1:1c.

    #206763
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (terraricca @ July 30 2010,11:15)
    it is understood that God, i mean the true and only God,can make god out of any one he feel to use as is will needed,just like he did with Moses,it is this way that it make sense to understand how Jesus ,the WORD,the Christ became god according to the will of GOD his father,(Christ did not become got of his father ,he is nominate by his father,big difference)


    Hi Pierre and All,

    The word “god” simply indicated a “mighty one” in both Hebrew and Greek culture.  But only Jehovah is called the God of gods.  In other words, He alone is the “mightiest of the mighty ones”.  That is why He alone is called “Almighty God”.  That is also why, although Jesus is a god, he still calls Jehovah “my God”.

    It is no problem whatsoever that Jesus is “a god”, or “mighty one”.  He is the second most powerful being in existence – of course he is a “mighty one”.  

    What Kathi fails to remember is, although there are many “mighty ones”, we are commanded to worship only the ALMIGHTY ONE.

    And where the trinitarians get confused is, although Jesus is the Almighty God's Son and servant, and calls the only Almighty God “my God”, they still somehow think he is the same exact being as this Almighty God who is his Father that begot him.  ???

    mike

    #206766
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (t8 @ July 30 2010,12:08)
    So I think John's intention was to say that there were two in the beginning or before the universe. God and the Word and the Word was divine, or of the same essence as God. I don't think he meant us to think that there was the Big God and a smaller god in the beginning.

    It might not seem like there is not much of a difference, but the outcome of saying that the Word is another God has profound consequences to the whole of scripture and seems to conflict with all statements that there is one who is identified as God and that he is the only true God. In effect, you could nullify all those other scriptures on account of that interpretation of John 1:1c.


    Hi t8,

    I can live with the first statement above.  Divine could be what John intended. But IMO, he more likely meant that the Word was with THE MIGHTY ONE, and the Word was himself “a mighty one”.

    And while I see what you're saying in the second paragraph, I have just never had that “THERE'S ONLY ONE GOD, PERIOD” thinking.  The Bible mentions many, and we can't just wish them away.

    If people would just substitute “tough one” or “master” or “strong one” or whatever, the problem would solve itself.  Insert the word “king”.  David was a king.  Jesus is a King.  But God is THE KING.  So what Paul and Jesus were both implying was that although there are many kings over many kingdoms, God is the only true KING in that He is, was and always will be KING over any and all other kings, including Jesus.

    But like I said, I understand we don't view or use the word “god” the same way as it was used in Biblical times.  And so I definitely see where you are coming from.

    mike

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