Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

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  • #155693

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,12:06)

    Quote (Gene @ Nov. 09 2009,08:39)
    thinker……..Still waiting for (ONE) scripture that says Jesus Preexisted His berth on earth, as some kind of (Being) some where. Using Davids prophetic statement to try to work a preexistence view doesn't work. We need proof not some speculations of your and WJ's.,  Ct is right in what he is saying.
    IMO

    gene


    Gene, he will not agree, thus the ad hominen attacks and his self proclaimed “Greek “watch dog” on this board” ruse (double standard), as if it gives him authority to denounce anything else that may be implied or added.

    It seems he utilizes the ad hominen style with all who disagree with him, just review his posts with those in opposition to him. It also sets a standard that he qualifies himself as a master of the Greek so that no one else on this board can possibly be counted worthy of dialogue because of a lack of understanding or education.

    It is a shame.


    Con

    But the point is you have not touched on the Greek, neither have you addressed any points concerning scriptures where Jesus claimed preexistence.

    If preexistence to you means that he had to be “Deity” then fine, but just trying to prove that Jesus is not Deity rather than touching on facts of his preexistence is proof of your willingness to turn your head from the truth!

    Just because you do not believe Jesus is Deity does not change the intended meaning of the writers of the Greek text and the translators!

    WJ

    #155694

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 08 2009,22:19)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,01:12)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 08 2009,20:26)

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 08 2009,06:51)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 08 2009,11:43)
    Hi All

    John 6:38-40
    For “I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will“, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that every one who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

    It is obvious what Jesus meant, but men who know nothing of the construction of the Greek have set out to make themselves greater than the truth by misinterpreting the clear meaning of the text in which the authors intended and which the translators translated.

    The Greek construction of the text concerning the preexistence of Jesus does not allow for a  “Unitarian” interpretation.

    The Greek for “I have come” is Strong's G2597 – katabainō which is defined…

    1) to go down, come down, descend
    a) the place from which one has come down from
    b) to come down

    In every place the word is used it is referring to a literal action by a person and not an abstract “thought or plan”“.

    katabainō  is in the “perfect” tense, and the “active voice” and the “indicative” mood!

    The perfect tense” in Greek corresponds to the perfect tense in English, and describes “an action” which is viewed as having been completed in the past, once and for all, not needing to be repeated.

    Jesus' last cry from the cross, TETELESTAI (“It is finished!”) is a good example of the perfect tense used in this sense, namely “It [the atonement] has been accomplished, completely, once and for all time.”

    Certain antiquated verb forms in Greek, such as those related to seeing (eidw) or knowing (oida) will use the perfect tense in a manner equivalent to the normal past tense. These few cases are exception to the normal rule and do not alter the normal connotation of the perfect tense stated above.

    The active voice” represents the subject as the doer or performer of the action. e.g., in the sentence, “The boy hit the ball,” the boy performs the action.

    The indicative mood” is a simple statement of fact. If an action really occurs or has occurred or will occur, it will be rendered in the indicative mood.

    For I came down (katabainō) from heaven”, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. John 6:38

    The same word is used here…

    And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God “descending (katabainō,)” like a dove, and lighting upon him: Matt 3:16

    And here…

    And, behold, there was a great earthquake: for the angel of the Lord “(descended (katabainō )” from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat upon it. Matt 28:2

    Was the Holy Spirit and the Angel a “thought or plan” come down from heaven? Or did they really descend from  heaven?

    Jesus said plainly that he came “From God” and “went to God”.

    Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that “he was come from God, and went to God“; John 13:3

    Again the Greek word come is in the “active voice” meaning Jesus did the action, and it is the indicative mood which means “the action really occurred”.

    When Jesus ascended to heaven., it was Jesus that did the ascending! The scriptures do not tell us the Father took him to heaven!

    Jesus words were clear, for he never said or even in the slightest way implied that he was or came from a plan or thought of the Father!

    Jesus puts the nail in the coffin for those who questioned what he was saying by the following words…

    What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up where he was before”? John 6:62

    Again the word “Ascend” is in the present tense and active voice which means that Jesus is doing the action.

    Jesus is going to “WHERE HE WAS BEFORE”!

    Was he returning to a “plan or thought” or was he returning to the Father in heaven from where he came from and to the Glory that he had with the Father before the foundation of the world.

    John 17:5
    And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with “the glory which I had with thee before the world was“.

    The Greek word for “I had” is Strong's G2192 – echō which is defined as…

    1) to have, i.e. to hold

    a) to have (hold) in the hand, in the sense of wearing, to have (hold) possession of the mind (refers to alarm, agitating emotions, etc.), to hold fast keep, to have or comprise or involve, to regard or consider or hold as 2) to have i.e. own, possess

    Again “I had” is in the “imperfect tense”, the “active voice”, and the “indicative mood”, so there is no way Jesus was saying “I shared his glory because I was in his thought and plan”!

    To deny the preexistence of Jesus is to deny the simple truths of the scriptures that tell us that Jesus was with the Father in the beginning of all of creation!

    The Jews murmured among themselves because Jesus said he was the Bread of Life that came down from heaven and many turned back because it was a hard pill they could not swallow!

    John 6:61, 62
    When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you? What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up where he was before“?

    WJ


    Where did Adam come from when he was created?


    Hi KW

    From the dust of the earth, Jesus came from heaven?

    The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven. 1 Cor 15:47, 48

    The clear Biblical teaching of the scriptures concerning his preexistence with the Father is indisputable because the Greek does not allow for a “Unitarian” interpretation.

    No one has addressed the scriptures where Jesus claims he came from heaven and that he would return back to where he came from!

    To deny
    his preexistence and that he came in the flesh is the Spirit of antichrist.

    Many deceivers, who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh, have gone out into the world. Any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist. 2 John 1:7

    Notice John who also wrote John 1:1, 14 uses the term “coming in the flesh” a term that is never used in describing the nature of any other man and it agrees with the Apostle Paul’s writing in Phil 2:6-8 where he says…

    Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, “being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man“, he humbled himself and became obedient to death- even death on a cross!

    The term “”being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man“, is a death blow to the “Unitarian” for these terms are never found anywhere in describing the origin or nature of any other man!

    Jesus was born without sin and had the Spirit without measure because he came from heaven by taking on the likeness of sinful flesh.

    To deny this is antichrist! John confirms his writings in 2 John and their intended meaning by the Gospel of John which came later!

    John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and “the Word was with God, and the Word was God“….

    Vrs 10 “He was in the world“, and though “the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him“.

    Vrs 14 “The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us“. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    Vrs 15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, '”He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.' “

    WJ


    Isaiah 42:1-9 Clear tells us who the Messiah is.

    v.1 Yahweh clearly speaks saying,

    “Here is my servant, the one I support. He is the one I chose, and I am pleased with him. I have put my Spirit upon him, and he will bring justice to all nations.”

    1 Corinthians 15:27-28 for this tells of Messiah’ place.

    “20But the Messiah has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. 22For as in Adam all die, so in the Messiah all will be made alive. 23But each in his own turn: the Messiah, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him. 24Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to Yahweh the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include Yahweh himself, who put everything under the Messiah. 28When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that Yahweh may be all in all.”

    You will clearly note a hierarchy. All things are put under the Messiah, excluding Yahweh himself and then the Messiah puts himself under Yahweh. This is clearly two different person with different levels of Authority.

    The Messiah referred to himself as possessing ‘divinity’ it was invariably in terms of the indwelling Father, not the incarnate ‘Yahweh the Son’. He never speaks of ‘the Son that dwells in me’. Instead, the Messiah was indwelt by his Yahweh in the same way the ark of the covenant was.

    In John 17:3, the Messiah clearly sets himself in contrast to ‘the only one who is truly Yahweh’, the Father (see also John 5:44).

    Where the title ‘god’ is applied to the Messiah by others, it harmonises far better with the Hebrew Bible to read it in terms of a functional equality, as opposed to an identity of substance.

    Moses was made a god to Pharaoh (Exodus 7:1) because he acted as Yahweh’s stand-in for his dealings with Egypt.

    In the same way, Paul describer the Satan as ‘the god of this age’ in that he occupies the dominion, usurped from Adam, that the Son will enjoy in the age to come.

    The distinction between ‘small-g’ and ‘big-G’ in our English translations is artificial, since there was none in the original Hebrew or Greek manuscripts.

    The concept of the Messiah as being ‘god’ in a ‘homoussian’ sense, a being of the same substance as God the Father, a Greek term not found anywhere in the Bible.

    It divides the godhead, violating what according to the Messiah was the first and greatest commandment. Mark 12:29-30


    Con

    And what does your post have to do with the points I made in my post?

    We are discussing the preexistence of Jesus not his divinity.

    Of couse the nature of an oppologist is to create a smoke screen in hopes of hiding the truth with a multitude of words that doesn't even address the facts!

    WJ


    If divinity has or has not any bearing on the pre-existance of the Messiah then what was the Messiah if he pre-existed?

    A Spirit? A Cherubim? Flesh and Blood?

    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.

    If he pre-existed as a Spirit, then why was the Holy Spirit involved in the virgin birth, the Spirit Messiah could have done it himself.

    If he was a Cherubim, then maybe the Holy Spirit would possibly be needed, but then the Jehovas Witness's would be correct that he was a created being and therfore not God, and that all along he was an Angel.

    If he was pre-existant as flesh and blood then he would not have been in heaven to begin with.

    Now if you pre-exist him with Divinity, then he could have been in Heaven, and the Trinitarians would be correct. But the problem with the Holy Spirit comes into question again.


    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    If he pre-existed as a Spirit, then why was the Holy Spirit involved in the virgin birth, the Spirit Messiah could have done it himself.


    The Holy Spirit was involved in the creation of his Body, the Temple that his Spirit lived in!

    WJ

    #155695
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    thinker………..To prove a point, you say when Jesus said before Abraham I am, means He existed as a (BEING) right? That is a supposition on your part , Jesus was not proving His existence as a Being , he was proving His authority in the Plan of GOD, showing he was in God's plan and purpose before Abraham was. You still have not produced any scripture that says Jesus (PREEXISTED) His berth on earth. Mystery Religion is good at adding to text and forcing text. But i want to see where Jesus or any apostle said He existed (AS) A (BEING) before His berth on earth, I have yet to find anywhere. Surely such and important thing as his preexistence would not have been over looked and would have been very clearly explained by all the apostles so there would be no confusion would it not? IMO

    gene

    #155696

    (8:53) ” 'Surely you are not greater than our father Abraham, who died?' … (:54) Jesus answered, 'If I glorify myself, my glory is nothing; it is my Father who glorifies me, of whom you say, “He is our God”; (:55) and you have not come to know him, but I know him; and if I say that I do not know him I shall be a liar like you, but I do know him, and keep his word. (:56) Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day; and he saw it and was glad.' (:57) The Jews therefore said to him, 'You are not yet fifty years old, and have you seen Abraham?' (:58) Jesus said to them, 'Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I AM.' (:59) Therefore they picked up stones to throw at him; but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple.” – John 8:53-59 New American Standard Bible (NASB).

    The Thinker claims that Jesus was declaring himself to be Jehovah God because he said “I AM” (ego eimi [eyw eimi] in the original NT Greek) at John 8:58.

    His reasoning probably goes something like this: Exodus 3:14 in some English Bible translations has Jehovah God revealing himself as “I AM WHO I AM” and “I AM.” So, they say, Jesus' statement at John 8:58 shows him revealing himself by the same exclusive title (name? description?) as Jehovah (“I AM” at Exodus 3:14) and, therefore, he is Jehovah God!

    Right?

    The Thinker probably believes the Jews understood perfectly that Jesus was claiming to be Jehovah when he used those two words because they immediately took up stones to kill him.

    But these Jews of Judea had already decided beforehand to kill Jesus! (John 7:1, 25)

    They needed no further incentives.

    Nothing that Jesus said or did at this point would have made any difference to them.

    If the Jews had really understood the phrase “I AM” (ego eimi) to mean the speaker was claiming to be Jehovah and that they should therefore kill him, they would have immediately stoned Jesus at John 8:24 or :28.

    The actual Greek in the ancient Bible manuscripts is identical to John 8:58, ego eimi, but many English Bible translations properly add “he” so that it can be understood as “I am he” in English.

    The Master of the Greek The Thinker should know this.

    We know that even his disciples didn't believe Jesus was God simply because he said ego eimi, for he said that to them at John 6:20 (usually rendered into English as “It is I”), and their reaction was certainly not that of those who had come into the presence of God!

    Look at Matt. 14:27 as well.

    Uunderstand that the name “Jehovah” in English (or “Yahweh” in one suggested Hebrew form) is the only personal name of God (see Ex. 3:15 and Ps. 83:18).

    This name is declared by God to be his very own name thousands of times in the Bible .

    #3068 in Strong's Concordance or the New American Standard Exhaustive Concordance, or Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon to the Old Testament

    Being a personal name like “Jesus,” “John,” “Mary,” etc, this name belongs to a single individual.

    This single person who is God is not the Holy Spirit. He is not the Son of God. He is the Father alone! Is. 63:16; Is. 64:8, ASV; Deut. 32:6, ASV; Ps. 89:26, 27

    Also see Heb. 1:5 and Ps. 2:7, ASV

    He is never called “the Son,” “the Firstborn,” “Only-begotten,” “High Priest of God,” the “Messiah” or “Christ” as Jesus is.

    It is obvious that the one person with the personal name of Jehovah cannot be the Messiah who has the personal name “Jesus”.

    Merely study the following scriptures preferably in a Bible that honestly translates God's personal name as “Jehovah”:

    ASV, NWT, KJIIV, Young's Literal Translation of the Holy Bible, and Byington's The Bible in Living English, or “Yahweh,” Jerusalem Bible, NJB, and Rotherham's The Emphasized Bible in all the 6900 places it's found in the original manuscripts instead of the mistranslated “LORD” found in nearly 7000 places in many translations.

    These are some of the scriptures which show the relationship of Jehovah to the Messiah:

    Psalm 110:1 (compare Acts 2:33-36 and Eph. 1:17, 20); Micah 5:4; Psalm 2:1, 2 (compare Acts 4:25-27); Psalm 2:7 (compare Acts 13:33; Heb. 5:5); Is. 53:10

    All Christian organizations recognize that all of Is. 53 refers to the Messiah.

    These all clearly show that Jesus is not Jehovah.

    The “I AM” (ego eimi) “evidence” which trinitarians say somehow disproves this often repeated, clearly taught scriptural knowledge of the only true God and of Jesus Christ (John 17:3).

    The words ego eimi formed a phrase that was in very common use by first century Christians and Jews and in New Testament scriptures.

    It was certainly not understood (by Jews or Christians) as declaring one's Godhood!

    If it could have been understood that way, we can be sure the Jews would have never applied it to themselves, as they did so frequently!

    The former blind man (John 9:9) actually identifies himself by saying “ego eimi,” but none of the other Jews present, even for a moment, understood him to be claiming to be Jehovah!

    The Thinker, did you miss that one?

    It is simply impossible that the Jews would say Jesus was claiming to be the Almighty God.

    It is virtually certain, instead, that one of three things was meant by the phrase “before Abraham came into being ego eimi” spoken by Jesus at John 8:58:

    “Even before Abraham was born, I was (the Christ).”

    “I existed before Abraham was born.”(“I was”; “I existed”; “I have been”)

    “I came into existence before Abraham was even born.”

    Jn 8:58 cannot mean “I am God” or its equivalent and why one of the three other interpretations listed above must be what was originally intended.

    As for the charge that the Jews were going to stone him because he claimed to be God, we should be aware that the Jews stoned people for many offenses. For example, a person pretending to be a “wizard” was to be stoned to death according to the Law (Lev. 20:27 – KJV, RSV, ASV, LB).

    “Wizard, a pretender to supernatural knowledge and power …. such a one was forbidden on pain of death to practice his deceptions … Lev. 20:26, 27.”

    The Jews wanted Jesus killed for blasphemy because he admitted to being the Messiah. Matt 26:59-68

    It was even forbidden for others to say that Jesus was the Messiah. John 9:22.

    And, in fact, that was obviously why Stephen was stoned to death.

    Acts 7:55-58, Stephen looked up into heaven “and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God, and he said, 'Behold, I see the heavens opened and the Son of man [synonymous with the Messiah, not God] standing at the right hand of God.' But they [the Jews] … cast him out of the city, and stoned him.” RSV.

    Stephen was stoned, not because he claimed to be God, nor because he claimed Jesus was God.

    Jesus “standing at the right hand of God” but because he was proclaiming Jesus to be the Messiah!

    “Stephen affirms to the Sanhedrin that the prophecy Jesus made before them has been fulfilled Mk 14:62.”

    Mk 14:61-64 shows Jesus declaring he is the Christ and that the Jews will see him, the son of man, at the right hand of God. This “blasphemy” of claiming to be the Messiah, whom the Jews never considered to be God, caused the Jews to condemn Jesus to death.

    The Jews could have perceived him as a false prophet, or a self-proclaimed “wizard,” or, more likely, as one claiming to be the Christ or Messiah, the Son of Man, and tried to stone him because of that.

    #155697

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ

    #155698

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,09:56)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:43)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 08 2009,23:36)
    Oh and you are incorrect on your statement of definition of an Apologists. They seek truth regardless of your Ad Homein verbage.


    Also in these forums you yourself would be considered an Apologists (one in tennis shoes), but an Apoligists nevertheless.

    In modern times, apologists refers to anyone known for defending the points in arguments, conflicts or positions that receive great popular scrutinies and/or are minority views.

    Saul (Paul of Tarsus) was an Apologists.


    Con

    You are right. I should have been more clear.

    I didn't clarify that I was speaking of “Unitarian” oppologist!

    But your patronizing remarks are noted!

    WJ


    My remarks were quid pro quo.

    #155699

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:03)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,12:06)

    Quote (Gene @ Nov. 09 2009,08:39)
    thinker……..Still waiting for (ONE) scripture that says Jesus Preexisted His berth on earth, as some kind of (Being) some where. Using Davids prophetic statement to try to work a preexistence view doesn't work. We need proof not some speculations of your and WJ's.,  Ct is right in what he is saying.
    IMO

    gene


    Gene, he will not agree, thus the ad hominen attacks and his self proclaimed “Greek “watch dog” on this board” ruse (double standard), as if it gives him authority to denounce anything else that may be implied or added.

    It seems he utilizes the ad hominen style with all who disagree with him, just review his posts with those in opposition to him. It also sets a standard that he qualifies himself as a master of the Greek so that no one else on this board can possibly be counted worthy of dialogue because of a lack of understanding or education.

    It is a shame.


    Con

    But the point is you have not touched on the Greek, neither have you addressed any points concerning scriptures where Jesus claimed preexistence.

    If preexistence to you means that he had to be “Deity” then fine, but just trying to prove that Jesus is not Deity rather than touching on facts of his preexistence is proof of your willingness to turn your head from the truth!

    Just because you do not believe Jesus is Deity does not change the intended meaning of the writers of the Greek text and the translators!

    WJ


    Jesus never claimed pre-existance. Trinitarians try to paint that picture.

    #155700

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:12)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ


    LOL, I am far from being a Unitarian, Arian maybe, but not a Unitarian.

    Anathema! LOL, peas and potatoes.

    #155701
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 10 2009,05:12)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ


    Hi WJ,
    The God of Israel was in the human vessel of Christ Jesus.
    God is one and He has a monogenes son.

    #155702

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:07)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 08 2009,22:19)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,01:12)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 08 2009,20:26)

    Quote (kerwin @ Nov. 08 2009,06:51)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 08 2009,11:43)
    Hi All

    John 6:38-40
    For “I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will“, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that every one who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

    It is obvious what Jesus meant, but men who know nothing of the construction of the Greek have set out to make themselves greater than the truth by misinterpreting the clear meaning of the text in which the authors intended and which the translators translated.

    The Greek construction of the text concerning the preexistence of Jesus does not allow for a  “Unitarian” interpretation.

    The Greek for “I have come” is Strong's G2597 – katabainō which is defined…

    1) to go down, come down, descend
    a) the place from which one has come down from
    b) to come down

    In every place the word is used it is referring to a literal action by a person and not an abstract “thought or plan”“.

    katabainō  is in the “perfect” tense, and the “active voice” and the “indicative” mood!

    The perfect tense” in Greek corresponds to the perfect tense in English, and describes “an action” which is viewed as having been completed in the past, once and for all, not needing to be repeated.

    Jesus' last cry from the cross, TETELESTAI (“It is finished!”) is a good example of the perfect tense used in this sense, namely “It [the atonement] has been accomplished, completely, once and for all time.”

    Certain antiquated verb forms in Greek, such as those related to seeing (eidw) or knowing (oida) will use the perfect tense in a manner equivalent to the normal past tense. These few cases are exception to the normal rule and do not alter the normal connotation of the perfect tense stated above.

    The active voice” represents the subject as the doer or performer of the action. e.g., in the sentence, “The boy hit the ball,” the boy performs the action.

    The indicative mood” is a simple statement of fact. If an action really occurs or has occurred or will occur, it will be rendered in the indicative mood.

    For I came down (katabainō) from heaven”, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me. John 6:38

    The same word is used here…

    And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God “descending (katabainō,)” like a dove, and lighting upon him: Matt 3:16

    And here…

    And, behold, there was a great earthquake: for the angel of the Lord “(descended (katabainō )” from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat upon it. Matt 28:2

    Was the Holy Spirit and the Angel a “thought or plan” come down from heaven? Or did they really descend from  heaven?

    Jesus said plainly that he came “From God” and “went to God”.

    Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that “he was come from God, and went to God“; John 13:3

    Again the Greek word come is in the “active voice” meaning Jesus did the action, and it is the indicative mood which means “the action really occurred”.

    When Jesus ascended to heaven., it was Jesus that did the ascending! The scriptures do not tell us the Father took him to heaven!

    Jesus words were clear, for he never said or even in the slightest way implied that he was or came from a plan or thought of the Father!

    Jesus puts the nail in the coffin for those who questioned what he was saying by the following words…

    What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up where he was before”? John 6:62

    Again the word “Ascend” is in the present tense and active voice which means that Jesus is doing the action.

    Jesus is going to “WHERE HE WAS BEFORE”!

    Was he returning to a “plan or thought” or was he returning to the Father in heaven from where he came from and to the Glory that he had with the Father before the foundation of the world.

    John 17:5
    And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with “the glory which I had with thee before the world was“.

    The Greek word for “I had” is Strong's G2192 – echō which is defined as…

    1) to have, i.e. to hold

    a) to have (hold) in the hand, in the sense of wearing, to have (hold) possession of the mind (refers to alarm, agitating emotions, etc.), to hold fast keep, to have or comprise or involve, to regard or consider or hold as 2) to have i.e. own, possess

    Again “I had” is in the “imperfect tense”, the “active voice”, and the “indicative mood”, so there is no way Jesus was saying “I shared his glory because I was in his thought and plan”!

    To deny the preexistence of Jesus is to deny the simple truths of the scriptures that tell us that Jesus was with the Father in the beginning of all of creation!

    The Jews murmured among themselves because Jesus said he was the Bread of Life that came down from heaven and many turned back because it was a hard pill they could not swallow!

    John 6:61, 62
    When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you? What and if ye shall see the Son of man “ascend up where he was before“?

    WJ


    Where did Adam come from when he was created?


    Hi KW

    From the dust of the earth, Jesus came from heaven?

    The first man was of the dust of the earth, the second man from heaven. 1 Cor 15:47, 48

    The clear Biblical teaching of the scriptures concerning his preexistence with the Father
    is indisputable because the Greek does not allow for a “Unitarian” interpretation.

    No one has addressed the scriptures where Jesus claims he came from heaven and that he would return back to where he came from!

    To deny his preexistence and that he came in the flesh is the Spirit of antichrist.

    Many deceivers, who do not acknowledge Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh, have gone out into the world. Any such person is the deceiver and the antichrist. 2 John 1:7

    Notice John who also wrote John 1:1, 14 uses the term “coming in the flesh” a term that is never used in describing the nature of any other man and it agrees with the Apostle Paul’s writing in Phil 2:6-8 where he says…

    Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped, but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, “being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man“, he humbled himself and became obedient to death- even death on a cross!

    The term “”being made in human likeness. And being found in appearance as a man“, is a death blow to the “Unitarian” for these terms are never found anywhere in describing the origin or nature of any other man!

    Jesus was born without sin and had the Spirit without measure because he came from heaven by taking on the likeness of sinful flesh.

    To deny this is antichrist! John confirms his writings in 2 John and their intended meaning by the Gospel of John which came later!

    John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and “the Word was with God, and the Word was God“….

    Vrs 10 “He was in the world“, and though “the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him“.

    Vrs 14 “The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us“. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

    Vrs 15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, '”He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.' “

    WJ


    Isaiah 42:1-9 Clear tells us who the Messiah is.

    v.1 Yahweh clearly speaks saying,

    “Here is my servant, the one I support. He is the one I chose, and I am pleased with him. I have put my Spirit upon him, and he will bring justice to all nations.”

    1 Corinthians 15:27-28 for this tells of Messiah’ place.

    “20But the Messiah has indeed been raised from the dead, the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21For since death came through a man, the resurrection of the dead comes also through a man. 22For as in Adam all die, so in the Messiah all will be made alive. 23But each in his own turn: the Messiah, the firstfruits; then, when he comes, those who belong to him. 24Then the end will come, when he hands over the kingdom to Yahweh the Father after he has destroyed all dominion, authority and power. 25For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. 26The last enemy to be destroyed is death. 27For he “has put everything under his feet.” Now when it says that “everything” has been put under him, it is clear that this does not include Yahweh himself, who put everything under the Messiah. 28When he has done this, then the Son himself will be made subject to him who put everything under him, so that Yahweh may be all in all.”

    You will clearly note a hierarchy. All things are put under the Messiah, excluding Yahweh himself and then the Messiah puts himself under Yahweh. This is clearly two different person with different levels of Authority.

    The Messiah referred to himself as possessing ‘divinity’ it was invariably in terms of the indwelling Father, not the incarnate ‘Yahweh the Son’. He never speaks of ‘the Son that dwells in me’. Instead, the Messiah was indwelt by his Yahweh in the same way the ark of the covenant was.

    In John 17:3, the Messiah clearly sets himself in contrast to ‘the only one who is truly Yahweh’, the Father (see also John 5:44).

    Where the title ‘god’ is applied to the Messiah by others, it harmonises far better with the Hebrew Bible to read it in terms of a functional equality, as opposed to an identity of substance.

    Moses was made a god to Pharaoh (Exodus 7:1) because he acted as Yahweh’s stand-in for his dealings with Egypt.

    In the same way, Paul describer the Satan as ‘the god of this age’ in that he occupies the dominion, usurped from Adam, that the Son will enjoy in the age to come.

    The distinction between ‘small-g’ and ‘big-G’ in our English translations is artificial, since there was none in the original Hebrew or Greek manuscripts.

    The concept of the Messiah as being ‘god’ in a ‘homoussian’ sense, a being of the same substance as God the Father, a Greek term not found anywhere in the Bible.

    It divides the godhead, violating what according to the Messiah was the first and greatest commandment. Mark 12:29-30


    Con

    And what does your post have to do with the points I made in my post?

    We are discussing the preexistence of Jesus not his divinity.

    Of couse the nature of an oppologist is to create a smoke screen in hopes of hiding the truth with a multitude of words that doesn't even address the facts!

    WJ


    If divinity has or has not any bearing on the pre-existance of the Messiah then what was the Messiah if he pre-existed?

    A Spirit? A Cherubim? Flesh and Blood?

    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.

    If he pre-existed as a Spirit, then why was the Holy Spirit involved in the virgin birth, the Spirit Messiah could have done it himself.

    If he was a Cherubim, then maybe the Holy Spirit would possibly be needed, but then the Jehovas Witness's would be correct that he was a created being and therfore not God, and that all along he was an Angel.

    If he was pre-existant as flesh and blood then he would not have been in heaven to begin with.

    Now if you pre-exist him with Divinity, then he could have been in Heaven, and the Trinitarians would be correct. But the problem with the Holy Spirit comes into question again.


    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    If he pre-existed as a Spirit, then why was the Holy Spirit involved in the virgin birth, the Spirit Messiah could have done it himself.


    The Holy Spirit was involved in the creation of his Body, the Temple that his Spirit lived in!

    WJ


    HeHe, sounds like witchcraft.

    #155703

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,13:14)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:03)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,12:06)

    Quote (Gene @ Nov. 09 2009,08:39)
    thinker……..Still waiting for (ONE) scripture that says Jesus Preexisted His berth on earth, as some kind of (Being) some where. Using Davids prophetic statement to try to work a preexistence view doesn't work. We need proof not some speculations of your and WJ's.,  Ct is right in what he is saying.
    IMO

    gene


    Gene, he will not agree, thus the ad hominen attacks and his self proclaimed “Greek “watch dog” on this board” ruse (double standard), as if it gives him authority to denounce anything else that may be implied or added.

    It seems he utilizes the ad hominen style with all who disagree with him, just review his posts with those in opposition to him. It also sets a standard that he qualifies himself as a master of the Greek so that no one else on this board can possibly be counted worthy of dialogue because of a lack of understanding or education.

    It is a shame.


    Con

    But the point is you have not touched on the Greek, neither have you addressed any points concerning scriptures where Jesus claimed preexistence.

    If preexistence to you means that he had to be “Deity” then fine, but just trying to prove that Jesus is not Deity rather than touching on facts of his preexistence is proof of your willingness to turn your head from the truth!

    Just because you do not believe Jesus is Deity does not change the intended meaning of the writers of the Greek text and the translators!

    WJ


    Jesus never claimed pre-existance. Trinitarians try to paint that picture.


    Really.

    Then please show us how Jesus is not claiming preexistence in John chapter 6?

    Why don't you give it a shot and address the scriptures and the Greek tenses that I showed in the post?

    WJ

    #155704

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:12)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ


    Or maybe to destroy the heresy of the Trinitarian push to make all believers, believe in three Gods, LOL

    #155705

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ Nov. 09 2009,10:17)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 10 2009,05:12)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ


    Hi WJ,
    The God of Israel was in the human vessel of Christ Jesus.
    God is one and He has a monogenes son.


    And your dripping in Catholocism.

    #155706

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,13:18)
    HeHe, sounds like witchcraft.


    No it sounds like John 1:1, 14, Phil 2::6-8

    WJ

    #155708

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,13:19)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:12)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ


    Or maybe to destroy the heresy of the Trinitarian push to make all believers, believe in three Gods, LOL


    That wasnt your statement at all was it?

    WJ

    #155709

    The Gospel writers have clearly shown Jesus applying the term ego eimi to himself and meaning “I am the Christ.”

    Mark 13:6 shows Jesus saying, “I am he [literally just ego eimi alone, 'I AM']” – NEB.

    The parallel account at Luke 21:8 agrees.

    But the other parallel account by Matthew shows what Jesus actually meant by the “absolute” ego eimi in those parallel accounts of Mark and Luke: “I am the Messiah” – Matt. 24:5 – NEB.

    Jesus using the “absolute” ego eimi at Mark 13:6 and Luke 21:8.

    And Matthew explains that Jesus means “I am the Messiah”!

    Also see John 8:24, Living Bible – “I am the Messiah,” “I am the Christ,” and see Jn 4:26; 13:19.

    Notice how Jesus admitted to being the Messiah when the Jews decided to kill him: “'Are you the Christ, the Son of the Blessed One?' 'I AM [ego eimi],' said Jesus.” – Mark 14:61-62.

    Again the 'absolute' ego eimi (“I am”) as used by Jesus means “I am the Christ” and spurs the Jews to condemn him to die!

    Trinitarians have admitted that they believe that Jesus' statements at John 8:56 and 8:58 are statements proclaiming himself to be the Messiah.

    So when Jesus said that Abraham had seen his day, he was making a deliberate claim that he was the Messiah.

    He was really saying 'I am the Messiah Abraham saw in his vision.”

    Analyze the “parallel” uses of ego eimi by Jesus found in the Gospel of John “which culminate in the 'I Am' of John 8:58,” we find they all show Jesus' identity as “Jesus” or “the Christ”!

    If these are really “parallel” uses of ego eimi by Jesus, as many trinitarians insist, then 8:58 should be understood as “I am [or 'have been'] the Christ”!

    The phrase “I, I am” {ego eimi} occurs many other times in the New Testament, is often translated as “I am he” or some equivalent “I am he” in Mark 13:6; Luke 21:8; John 13:19; 18:5, 6 & 8; “it is I” in Matt 14:27; Mark 6:50; John 6:20 & “I am the one I claim to be” in John 8:24 & 28.

    Translations are quite correct, but it is interesting that the phrase is translated as “I am”, ONLY once i.e. in John 8:58.

    If the phrase in John 8:58 were translated “I am he” or “I am the one” like all the others, it would be easier to see that Christ was speaking of himself as the Messiah of God, as indeed he was, spoken of throughout the Old Testament.

    Even the trinitarian believers who translated the Living Bible and CBW can interpret the “absolute” ego eimi at John 8:24 as “I am the Messiah (Christ)” – 8:28, LB, CBW, then it would not only be proper but maybe even probable that it should be so translated again at John 8:58:

    “Even before Abraham was born, I am the Messiah. Therefore [since he claimed to be the Messiah] they picked up stones to throw at him.”

    #155711

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:28)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,13:19)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:12)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ


    Or maybe to destroy the heresy of the Trinitarian push to make all believers, believe in three Gods, LOL


    That wasnt your statement at all was it?

    WJ


    You used the word “Unitarian”.

    I am Arian, we a few.

    #155718
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 10 2009,05:21)

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ Nov. 09 2009,10:17)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 10 2009,05:12)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ


    Hi WJ,
    The God of Israel was in the human vessel of Christ Jesus.
    God is one and He has a monogenes son.


    And your dripping in Catholocism.


    Hi CON.
    Try to focus on the scriptural issues.
    Carnal battles are just distractions.

    #155724
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 10 2009,05:35)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:28)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,13:19)

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 09 2009,10:12)

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,02:33)
    99% of Christianity equates Divinity to explain the Messiah and his pre-existance, destroy the Divine Nature and you destroy pre-existance.


    There it is, the whole purpose of the “Unitarian” is to destroy the Divine nature of Christ!

    Anathema!

    WJ


    Or maybe to destroy the heresy of the Trinitarian push to make all believers, believe in three Gods, LOL


    That wasnt your statement at all was it?

    WJ


    You used the word “Unitarian”.

    I am Arian, we a few.


    Hi CON,
    Should you not claim Christ rather than these divisive human labellings?

    #155734

    Quote (Constitutionalist @ Nov. 09 2009,13:31)
    “Even before Abraham was born, I am the Messiah. Therefore [since he claimed to be the Messiah] they picked up stones to throw at him.”


    So the fact that Jesus said… “Even before Abraham was born” had no bearing on them?

    Just like the Jews they stopped their ears to Jesus claim of being with the Father before abraham!

    Earlier in the chapter Jesus says…

    But he continued, “You are from below; “I am from above“. You are of this world; “I am not of this world“. John 8:23

    Arians totally deny these clear words. The distinction Jesus makes between his origin and the origin of every other man is a death blow to the unbelieving Jews as well as the modern day Arians!

    And so Jesus says…

    I told you that you would die in your sins; if you do not believe that I am the one I claim to be, you will indeed die in your sins. John 8:24

    Jesus continues…

    Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I “proceeded” (exerchomai) forth and “came” (hēkō) from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me. John 8:42

    The Greek word for Proceeded is Strong's G1831 – exerchomai and is defined as;
    1) to go or come forth of
    a) with mention of the place out of which one goes, or the point from which he departs
    1) of those who leave a place of their own accord

    “Proceeded” is in the Active voice. The active voice represents the subject as the doer or performer of the action. e.g., in the sentence, “The boy hit the ball,” the boy performs the action

    The Greek word for Came is Strong's G2240 – hēkō and is defined as;

    1)to have come, have arrived, be present

    “Came” is in the active voice also. The active voice represents the subject as the doer or performer of the action. e.g., in the sentence, “The boy hit the ball,” the boy performs the action

    So Jesus claim is unambiguous that he preexisted and came in the likeness of sinful flesh!

    So the Jews said…

    …Thou art not yet fifty years old, and “hast thou seen Abraham? John 8:57

    Jesus answered them and said…

    Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was”, I am.

    Then took they up stones to cast at him. Vrs 59.

    The reason they were stoning him was also because he claimed to be before Abraham.

    Just like the Jews they stopped their ears to Jesus claim being with the Father before abraham!

    WJ

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