Did Jesus pre-exist before his birth on Earth?

Where did Jesus come from?

John 6:38-40
For I have come down from heaven, not to do my own will, but the will of him who sent me; and this is the will of him who sent me, that I should lose nothing of all that he has given me, but raise it up at the last day. For this is the will of my Father, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in him should have eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.

The first verse suggests that Jesus came down from Heaven. This seems to contradict that belief which suggests he first existed as a man when he was born into this world. For if Jesus came into existence for the first time when he was conceived through Mary, how could he come down from Heaven? We (Man) came into existence when we are born into this world, but would it be correct to say that we came down from Heaven too? If a verse said that we came down from Heaven, would you think that we pre-existed in Heaven? If so, then why not Jesus?

John 3:17 is another verse that provides support that Jesus came down from Heaven or was sent rather than created.

For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him.

The word ‘send’ is the Greek word ‘apostello’.

apostello {ap-os-tel’-lo}
1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed
2) to send away, dismiss
2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
2b) to order one to depart, send off
2c) to drive away

To be sent surely implies existence otherwise you would just say born or created. In fact this word (sent) is similar in meaning and sound to the word Apostle (apostolos), which means “one sent forth with orders”. To be sent forth with order, you must exist.

John 6:62
What and if ye shall see the Son of man ascend up where he was before?

Jesus is clearly stating here that he came from above since he eventually ascended into Heaven to be at the right-hand of God.

How old is Jesus?

John 1:15
15 John testifies concerning him. He cries out, saying, “This was he of whom I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.‘ “

John the Baptist was six months older than Jesus Christ. So it is physically impossible for Christ to be before him in age. If this verse is referencing age, then it shows preexistence. Jesus existed before  John the Baptist in the least.

John 8:58
“I tell you the truth,” Jesus answered, “before Abraham was born, I am!

Jesus claimed to exist before Abraham, the father of the Jews. The words ‘I am’ mean ‘I exist’. So Jesus claimed existence before Abraham. We can see that Jesus is getting older as we explore the scriptures. But how old?

Jude 1:25
to the only God our Savior be glory, majesty, power and authority, through Jesus Christ our Lord, before all ages, now and forevermore! Amen.

Here we can see that majesty, power, and authority through Jesus Christ is before all ages (all worlds) and forever more into the future. This strongly implies that Jesus existed even before all things. But can we substantiate this?

Did Jesus exist before all creation?

Colossians 1:17
He is before all things, and in him all things hold together.

Colossians answers the question outright. It states that “He is before all things“.  But are there other verses that support this idea?

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus being there. This verse alone answers the question because the universe, angels, and men were made and Jesus was present when they were created according to these verses. In case that is not enough to convince you, I also add another clear verse that says the same thing.

Hebrews 1:1-2
1 In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways,
2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.

Is Jesus the Word of God?

But some say that this is talking about the Word and not all believe that Jesus is the Word of God. They argue that Jesus came from the Word, but is not the Word itself that was with God in John 1:1. If you believe this, then please explain the next two verses within their wider context:

Revelation 19:13
He is dressed in a robe dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God.

Colossians 1:15-18
The Son is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation. For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things have been created through him and for him. He is before all things, and in him all things hold together. And he is the head of the body, the church; he is the beginning and the firstborn from among the dead, so that in everything he might have the supremacy.

Okay, if you are honest, this is a closed case. God created all things through the Word. Jesus is called the Word of God and also the son of God. We are also told that God created all things through the son of God. Even if you do not believe that Jesus is the Word, then you still have to believe that Jesus pre-existed on account of him being the son of God. But what we know from scripture is that Jesus existed as the Word of God before he came as a man called Jesus. We know that the Word became flesh.

More proof verses

If Jesus pre-existed, then you might expect that even though the above verses are clear, there would be more verses that teach or at least imply that he pre-existed. So let’s see if this is the case.

Revelation 22:16
“I, Jesus, have sent my angel to give you this testimony for the churches. I am the Root and the Offspring of David, and the bright Morning Star.”

Here we see that Jesus is the offspring of David, yet he is also the root of David, which at appears to show existence before King David. He also claims to be the bright Morning Star and we read in Job how the Morning Stars were present when God created the Earth.

Job 38:6-7
“On what were its bases sunk? Or who laid its cornerstone, When the morning stars sang together And all the sons of God shouted for joy? 

Luke 10:18
He replied, “I saw Satan fall like lightning from heaven.

Comparing Luke 10:18 with Revelation 12:1-10, some say that Satan and his angels fell to the earth before the birth of Christ as a man. If this was the case, then Jesus saw an event that took place before he was born as a man. However, others argue that Satan hasn’t fallen to the Earth yet, or that he has, but Jesus saw this in a vision. Regardless, it certainly doesn’t contradict that Jesus pre-existed.

Micah 5:2
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah, out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”

The above verse talks about someone who will rule Israel and whose origin is from ancient times. Who but Jesus could fit that description?

John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God/Divine.

John 1:14
The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the One and Only,[ 1:14 Or the Only Begotten] who came from the Father, full of grace and truth.

Clearly, Jesus was with God in the beginning as the Word of God. This places his existence as before all things and thus comes as no surprise that he was there when God created all things.

The Angel of YHWH

We know from certain scriptures that Jesus is Lord of the Sabbath and many assume that Jesus gave the Law of God. We are told in Acts:7:30-39 for instance that an Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses through whom God spoke and this is the same Angel who spoke to Moses on Mount Sinai and passed on the living words (The Law) to Moses.

30 “After forty years had passed, an angel appeared to Moses in the flames of a burning bush in the desert near Mount Sinai.
31 When he saw this, he was amazed at the sight. As he went over to look more closely, he heard the Lord’s voice:
32 ‘I am the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.’Moses trembled with fear and did not dare to look.
33 “Then the Lord said to him, ‘Take off your sandals; the place where you are standing is holy ground.
34 I have indeed seen the oppression of my people in Egypt. I have heard their groaning and have come down to set them free. Now come, I will send you back to Egypt.’
35 “This is the same Moses whom they had rejected with the words, ‘Who made you ruler and judge?’ He was sent to be their ruler and deliverer by God himself, through the angel who appeared to him in the bush.
36 He led them out of Egypt and did wonders and miraculous signs in Egypt, at the Red Sea and for forty years in the desert.
37 “This is that Moses who told the Israelites, ‘God will send you a prophet like me from your own people.’
38 He was in the assembly in the desert, with the angel who spoke to him on Mount Sinai, and with our fathers; and he received living words to pass on to us.
39 “But our fathers refused to obey him. Instead, they rejected him and in their hearts turned back to Egypt.

So is this Angel of the Lord, Jesus? Well it seems possible. Perhaps the correct model to look at is the one mentioned in Revelation 1:1

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show his servants what must soon take place. He made it known by sending his angel to his servant John,

Here we can see that the order of the Revelation started with the Originator which is God. He then passed the message to Jesus Christ who in turn sent it to his Angel and then to John. So perhaps it is possible that the angel in Revelation is the same angel mentioned in Acts:7:30-39.

But the Angel of YHWH or Angel of the LORD is described as one like the son of gods.

Daniel 3:24-25
Then Nebuchadnezzar the king was astounded and stood up in haste; he said to his high officials, “Was it not three men we cast bound into the midst of the fire?” They replied to the king, “Certainly, O king.” He said, “Look! I see four men loosed and walking about in the midst of the fire without harm, and the appearance of the fourth is like a son of the gods!”

The idea that a preincarnate Jesus was this Angel of the LORD is a popular one. We know that this Angel of the LORD is never mentioned while Jesus is walking the earth which supports this idea. But it could also be a coincidence. One connection that can be made with Jesus being this messenger is found in Judges 13:18.

Manoah said to the angel of the LORD, “What is your name, so that when your words come to pass, we may honor you?” But the angel of the LORD said to him, “Why do you ask my name, seeing it is wonderful?”

Now read what Isaiah prophesied in Isaiah 9:6 .

For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

Clearly, Isaiah was speaking of Jesus Christ and note that he was called Wonderful Counselor. Is there a connection here? Perhaps. What we do know is the word ‘angel’ is the same word messenger in the Old Testament, and while it is held that Jesus is not an angel in kind, we know he certainly was a messenger of YHWH and would be fair to say even ‘The Messenger of YHWH’.

So the idea that he may be this angel is not that far fetched. Some vehemently oppose this idea, but they are not aware that both Jesus and John are called angels in the messenger sense.

More to come here……

More proof that Jesus pre-existed

Rev 3:14
And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God.

Moving on we read the following in Philippians 2:5-11
5 Your attitude should be the same as that of Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God, did not consider equality with God something to be grasped,
7 but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to death even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

Surely the above verses assumes preexistence.  Look at verse 7: ‘but made himself nothing, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness’. This verse points out that Jesus humbled himself to become a (or like a) human and also a servant. So this suggests to us that he preexisted in a higher state because to humble oneself is to become lower. If he started life in this humbled state, then it would be incorrect to say that he humbled himself. Further, he “found himself in appearance as a man” is a weird statement to make if he first existed as a human baby.

This verse is often used in support of the trinity doctrine because of the word ‘equal’. But if you are equal to something it means that you are not that thing, rather you are like that thing. This scripture is also very clear about the following: The Father is God and Jesus is Lord and that God exalted Jesus to the highest place.

A closer look at verse 9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: Now I am not sure if Jesus was exalted higher than he was before he came to this world or whether he was exalted to the exact position that he had before. But if we look at John 17:5 again we can see that Jesus asked to return to his former glory.

John 17:5
And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began.

The above verse is clear about Christ’s pre-existence in glory before the world began. Just to prove this is not an isolated scripture here is a similar verse:

John 16:28
I came from the Father and entered the world; now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father.”

The next verse also confirms that Jesus pre-existed in Heaven.

John 3:12-15
12 I have spoken to you of earthly things and you do not believe; how then will you believe if I speak of heavenly things?
13 No one has ever gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven, the Son of Man.
14 Just as Moses lifted up the snake in the desert, so the Son of Man must be lifted up,
15 that everyone who believes in him may have eternal life.

Ezekiel 8:1-3
1 In the sixth year, in the sixth month on the fifth day, while I was sitting in my house and the elders of Judah were sitting before me, the hand of the Sovereign LORD came upon me there.
2 I looked, and I saw a figure like that of a man. From what appeared to be his waist down he was like fire, and from there up his appearance was as bright as glowing metal.
3 He stretched out what looked like a hand and took me by the hair of my head. The Spirit lifted me up between earth and heaven and in visions of God he took me to Jerusalem, to the entrance to the north gate of the inner court, where the idol that provokes to jealousy stood.

This verse is interesting in the sense that the description is very similar to the description of Jesus Christ in Revelation 1:12-18,

12 I turned around to see the voice that was speaking to me. And when I turned I saw seven golden lampstands,
13 and among the lampstands was someone “like a son of man,” dressed in a robe reaching down to his feet and with a golden sash around his chest.
14 His head and hair were white like wool, as white as snow, and his eyes were like blazing fire.
15 His feet were like bronze glowing in a furnace, and his voice was like the sound of rushing waters.
16 In his right hand he held seven stars, and out of his mouth came a sharp double-edged sword. His face was like the sun shining in all its brilliance.
17 When I saw him, I fell at his feet as though dead. Then he placed his right hand on me and said: “Do not be afraid. I am the First and the Last.
18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and behold I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades.

Have a look at the next verse. 1 Corinthians 11:3 (English-NIV)
Now I want you to realize that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.

Now the word head in the Greek is ‘kephale’ which can mean head, source or master. Now if we notice the order in a time sense, we have to admit that God is the first as he is the only one who has existed for all eternity with no beginning. We also know from scripture that the man came first and the woman came from the man. So that part is correct if we use a timeline. That just leaves Christ. Did he come between God and Man. I think so, as I believe that all things came from him and this opinion does fit perfectly into this model in a time sense at least. Anyway the word Christ here is ‘Christos’ which means “anointed”. So the anointed is the head of Man.
God > Christ > Man > Woman

If God created all things for his Son and his Son was the channel for that creation to come into being, then we can only assume that Christ existed at this point. As Genesis says: Let us make Man in our image. God was talking to Christ at this point and we know that Christ is the image of God and we are the image of Christ. Therefore the image of the image of God (man) is still the image of God. But Christ is the original and first image and we can only assume again that that image existed before the image of the image. A bit like a mirror that reflects a mirror, the original mirror has to exist in order to reflect the second mirror.

So we know that Christ preexisted before creation and now we will look at some more scriptures that show that he was born before creation itself?

Colossians 1:15-16
15 He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn over all creation.
16 For by him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; all things were created by him and for him.

The above verse is quite clear that ALL things were created by or through Jesus.

John 1:3
Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

So again, there is nothing that was made that didn’t involve Jesus/The Word being there. Only the Father and Son were not made. God has always existed and the Son was born from God before the creation of the universe, before anything was made. The next verse describes clearly who/what was the first of God’s works.

Proverbs 8:22-30
22 “The LORD brought me forth as the first of his works, {[22] Or ; or } {[22] Or ; or } before his deeds of old;
23 I was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
24 When there were no oceans, I was given birth, when there were no springs abounding with water;
25 before the mountains were settled in place, before the hills, I was given birth,
26 before he made the earth or its fields or any of the dust of the world.
27 I was there when he set the heavens in place, when he marked out the horizon on the face of the deep,
28 when he established the clouds above and fixed securely the fountains of the deep,
29 when he gave the sea its boundary so the waters would not overstep his command, and when he marked out the foundations of the earth.
30 Then I was the craftsman at his side. I was filled with delight day after day, rejoicing always in his presence,

This verse is talking about Wisdom, whom many believe is Christ. This scriptures compliments other scriptures that that teach that Jesus was given birth by God and then created all THINGS though him.

So from this verse we can see the following points.

Wisdom was brought forth as the first of Gods works.
Wisdom was appointed from eternity, from the beginning, before the world began.
Wisdom was given birth before creation.
Wisdom was the craftsman at his side and rejoiced in his presence before creation.
Some say that Wisdom isn’t Christ, rather this is just wisdom in a conceptual sense and it is true that wisdom is being spoken of in that way. But from verse 22 onward it changes tempo. With terms like I was given birth, I was the craftsman at his side and I was filled with delight, we have to admit that it seems to be talking about a person. Now have a look at the following verses:

1 Corinthians 1:24 (English-NIV)
but to those whom God has called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God and the wisdom of God.

1 Corinthians 1:30 (English-NIV)
It is because of him that you are in Christ Jesus, who has become for us wisdom from God–that is, our righteousness, holiness and redemption.

Let’s look at some other concepts that Jesus personifies:

Jesus is the Truth. Yet truth is also a concept.
Jesus is the Way. Yet the way is also a concept.
Jesus is the Life. Yet life can also be a concept.
Now look at the following mystery:

1 Corinthians 2:6-9
6 We do, however, speak a message of wisdom among the mature, but not the wisdom of this age or of the rulers of this age, who are coming to nothing.
7 No, we speak of God’s secret wisdom, a wisdom that has been hidden and that God destined for our glory before time began.
8 None of the rulers of this age understood it, for if they had, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.
9 However, as it is written:
“No eye has seen,
no ear has heard,
no mind has conceived
what God has prepared for those who love him”

Ephesians 3:8-10
8 Although I am less than the least of all God’s people, this grace was given me: to preach to the Gentiles the unsearchable riches of Christ,
9 and to make plain to everyone the administration of this mystery, which for ages past was kept hidden in God, who created all things.
10 His intent was that now, through the church, the manifold wisdom of God should be made known to the rulers and authorities in the heavenly realms,

Perhaps another scripture alluding to Jesus being the Wisdom of God.

Finally I leave you with the following OT scripture that suggests that God had a Son before the birth Of Jesus Christ on earth.

Proverbs 30:4
Who has gone up to heaven and come down? Who has gathered up the wind in the hollow of his hands? Who has wrapped up the waters in his cloak? Who has established all the ends of the earth? What is his name, and the name of his son? Tell me if you know!


Discussion

Viewing 20 posts - 2,741 through 2,760 (of 19,165 total)
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  • #89779
    gsilva72
    Participant

    Hi 94- Quote “As I stated Jesus is God in the sense that he is the express image of God's person, and that we see through the works that he did in obedience to God's Word.  God does call him God in Hebrews 1:10.

    So you do believe Jesus is God. Hebrews 1:8 also states he is God.  
    :)

    #89780
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Quote (942767 @ May 27 2008,16:29)
    Hi Nick:

    I know of Only one God and One only begotten Son of God and many sons of God who are begotten of God by the spirit of adoption, but no, I am sorry, I don't know any begotten God.  If you want to believe that that is your prerogative.  Go right ahead.


    Hi 94,
    Then you must show us how the scripture in Jn 1.18 is wrong by other means than opinion.

    #89781

    Quote (942767 @ May 27 2008,11:12)

    Hi WJ:

    You say:

    Quote
    Jesus spoke the words of God, and in many places in the scriptures takes claim to them as being his own words.

    Please show me where he takes claim to “them” being his own words.  Thanks.

    Hi 94

    This is a quick post for I have others to answer that were before you.

    If you study the scriptures closely you will see that the scriptures are all about Yeshua.

    Jesus said they were written about him. John 5:39

    When Yeshua made statements like…

    Jhn 7:16 Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, but his that sent me.  
    Jhn 7:17 If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or [whether] I speak of myself.

    Men immediately assume that Jesus cannot be God. Yet if you look at the context you will see Yeshua is speaking of authority. Phil 2 reveals Yeshua relinquishing all authority and humbling himself as a servant and being found in fashion as a man. He was rich yet he for our sakes became poor. 2 Cor 8:9

    Jesus answered them, and said, My doctrine is not mine, (or my own) but his that sent me. If any man will do his will, he shall know of the doctrine, whether it be of God, or whether I speak of myself. (Or my own authority) John 7:16, 17.

    You can check the variations from the different translations and you will see that the implication is “his doctrine was the Fathers also and that Yeshua spoke not on his own”.

    The Father only speaks by the Son and the Son only speaks by the Father. Compare this concept with these scriptures…

    But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work. Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God. Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself (or on his own), but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he (the Father) doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise. John 5:17

    This is an extremely profound claim for just a mere man to make, or even an anointed prophet. It was such a strong claim to his Deity that the Jews were accusing him of making himself equal to God. If you look at his statement with an open mind you will see this is exactly what he is doing for he claims to do whatever the Father does, yet Yeshua makes it clear that he does not do anything on his own initiative, just as the Father does everything with the Son.

    “Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father is in Me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on My own initiative, but the Father abiding in Me does His works. (John 14:10 NASB)

    Jesus simply didn’t speak on his own, just as the Father never speaks without the Son. A few verses before Yeshua had just told Philip that if he seen Him he has seen his Father (God) and that if he had known Him he would have known his Father (God).

    If Yeshua meant that his words were not his then he would have been contradicting himself and leaving a lot of confusion with those that heard him, for he says in many places that the words he spoke were also his words as well as the Fathers.

    Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life. (John 5:24)

    Then said Jesus to those Jews which believed on him, If ye continue in my word, [then] are ye my disciples indeed; And ye shall know the truth, and the truth shall make you free.
    (John 8:31, 32)

    I know that ye are Abraham's seed; but ye seek to kill me, because my word hath no place in you. (John 8:37)

    Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word. (John 8:43)

    I know thy works: behold, I have set before thee an open door, and no man can shut it: for thou hast a little strength, and hast kept my word, and hast not denied my name. (Rev 3:8)

    Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. (Matt 24:35)

    Whosoever therefore shall be ashamed of me and of my words in this adulterous and sinful generation; of him also shall the Son of man be ashamed, when he cometh in the glory of his Father with the holy angels. (Mark 8:38)

    But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words? (John 5:47)

    Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him. (John 14:23)

    In each one of the above scriptures Yeshua could have said “My Fathers word”, but in fact Jesus takes claim to the scriptures…

    Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. (Jn 5:39)

    The scriptures are a biography of God and Jesus takes claim to them.

    Blessings! :)

    #89785
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi WJ,
    Has Jesus become his own father, in your view, or has he always been so?

    #89788
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (gsilva72 @ May 27 2008,17:04)
    Hi 94- Quote “As I stated Jesus is God in the sense that he is the express image of God's person, and that we see through the works that he did in obedience to God's Word.  God does call him God in Hebrews 1:10.

    So you do believe Jesus is God. Hebrews 1:8 also states he is God.  
    :)


    Others scriptures also state that men, angels, idols, and even Satan are theos and elohim. Do you believe that they are God too?

    #89809
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (942767 @ May 26 2008,19:33)

    Quote (Lightenup @ May 27 2008,11:08)

    Quote (942767 @ May 26 2008,17:52)
    Hi Lightenup:

    You say:

    Quote
    and One Begotten God, The Lord Jesus Christ.

    Where is the scripture to support this?


    Hi 94,

    Nick is right it is in John 1:18:

    18 No one has seen God at any time; the ONLY BEGOTTEN GOD who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.  
    NASU

    Here it is in the Greek:
    qeon oudeiv ewraken (5758) pwpote; monogenhv qeov o wn (5752) eiv ton kolpon tou patrov ekeinov echghsato.

    monogenhv qeov means only begotten God.

    Some translations say only begotten Son but the greek word after begotten is qeov which when transliterated is Theos which means God.

    And Jesus is Lord:
    1 Cor 8:6
    6 yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him.
    NASU


    Hi Lightenup:

    As I said to Nick, no wonder why there is so much confusion.

    There has to be in this translation maybe something like the only begotten (of) God in order for this to be consistent with the rest of the bible.

    As I stated Jesus is God in the sense that he is the express image of God's person, and that we see through the works that he did in obedience to God's Word.  God does call him God in Hebrews 1:10 but he exlains why saying,

    Quote
    But unto the Son [he saith], Thy throne, O God, [is] for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness [is] the sceptre of thy kingdom.

    Hbr 1:9  THOU HATH LOVED RIGHTEOUSNESS, AND HATED INIQUITY; “THEREFORE” GOD (EVEN THY GOD), HATH ANOINTED THE WITH THE OIL OF GLADNESS ABOVE THY FELLOWS.

    God Bless


    Hi 94,

    I am glad that you are not just satisfied that your Bible says what you hope it means but that you are thinking this through. I feel your pain because I used to not know a thing about Greek (not saying that YOU don't know a thing about Greek). I was at the mercies of the translator. If you want me to explain how to manuever http://www.studylight.org to find out a bit more about the original Greek words then let me know.

    You might try going to this web page and see John 1:18 in english and the Greek also.

    http://www.studylight.org/isb….=1&l=en

    Regarding John 1:18

    No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, He has explained Him.

    qeon oudeiv ewraken (5758) pwpote; monogenhv qeov o wn (5752) eiv ton kolpon tou patrov ekeinov echghsato.

    Now, go to this web page to see if qeov is in the genitive case (that is the case that would show possession and be tranlated “of God”)

    http://www.studylight.org/isb….8&nt=na

    We see here that monogenhv is:
    Adjective : Nominative : Singular : Masculine.
    Which means that it is an adjective in this sentence and that it is describing the subject, (that is what nominative tells us). The words singular and masculine are agreeing with the noun that it is describing which is qeov (God).

    We also see on this web page that qeov (God) is:
    Noun : Nominative : Singular : Masculine
    Which means that God is used in this sentence as the noun and subject (because it is in the nominative case). Singular means that it is just one God spoken about in this sentence and that the noun is masculine, not feminine or neuter.

    You see, 94, if it was supposed to be “the only begotten OF God” then qeov would be spelled differently to match the genitive case and not in the nominative case. When a Greek noun is written in the genitive case translators are to put the word “of” in front of it because genitive cases show possession.

    Now, I have given you a bit of a Greek lesson. You are not ready to fly yet but I want you to know that the translators have some rules that they have to follow. It is true that they have some freedom within their translating but certainly not much.

    Let me know if I haven't explained it clearly enough.

    And by the way, by referring to the Son of God as the Begotten God then you have the understanding that is consistent with the rest of the Bible. If you accept Him as the Begotten God, well that clears up many of the scriptures we have been going round and round with here in the trinity and pre-existence thread. I will speak of that in my next post.

    Peace,
    LU

    #89812
    Lightenup
    Participant

    To all:
    As I told 94 in my last post, if we accept the son of God as the only begotten God then we can clear up alot of the verses we seem to go round and round with. For instance:

    John 1:1
    In the beginning was the Word (“let there by light”), and the Word (the light) was with God, and the Word (the light) was (the only begotten) God.

    Col 1:15
    He (the only begotten God) is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn (the light was the first to come into existence) of all creation.

    By the way, it can not be “firstborn OVER all creation” eventhough the Son of God would considered that also. The Greek words for “of all creation” come from pashv ktisewv.

    He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.
    ov estin (5748) eikwn tou qeou tou aoratou, prwtotokov pashv ktisewv,

    pashv ktisewv
    pashv-Adjective : Genitive : Singular : Feminine

    pashv- Strong's #3956-Greek root word is pav
    Definition:
    individually
    each, every, any, all, the whole, everyone, all things, everything
    collectively
    some of all types

    ktisews-Noun : Genitive : Singular : Feminine
    Strongs #2937 Greek root word is ktisiv
    the act of founding, establishing, building etc
    the act of creating, creation
    creation i.e. thing created
    of individual things, beings, a creature, a creation 1b
    anything created 1b
    after a rabbinical usage (by which a man converted from idolatry to Judaism was called) 1b
    the sum or aggregate of things created
    institution, ordinance

    ktisews is written in the genitive case and when translated it is to have the word “of” in front of it because “genitive” means that it shows possession.

    You can refer to these web pages for the above info on Colossians 1:15:

    http://www.studylight.org/isb….1&ncc=1

    http://www.studylight.org/isb….5&nt=na

    This takes alot of time to go through this but it is important!

    God bless all,
    LU

    #89813
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Lightenup……….explain why translators left out the definite articles be for the word God in so many places and added it in in others when its not in the Greek.
    When translators added the definite article in front of the words law, it gives it a complete different meaning then if they would have left it out as the original text has it. Because the word the is spicific or definite which makes the phrase (the Law) mean the ten commandments, But if the definite article is not there as it's is in the original text it would read, by works of Law shall no flesh be justified, another word it means by the way Law works (forced compliance) would no flesh be justified. These adding or omitting of the definite article does definitely change the texts.

    Many places where the word God appears there should be the definite article there, and should be read (The God) not God in a general sense.

    Also is is my understanding that the word (Only) should be (Unique) so the text should have read uniquely begotten son, not only begotten son.

    We need to all remember the text we have went from the original language spoken by Jesus and the Apostles (more likely Aramaic) into Greek or Latin then into English. And a lot of influenced thinking was there too, errors are every where or we wouldn't have so many different translations, but i believe with God's spirit we can figure out enough to get to the basic truths.

    peace to you …………..gene

    #89820
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ May 27 2008,11:20)
    Lightenup……….explain why translators left out the definite articles be for the word God in so many places and added it in in others when its not in the Greek.
    When translators added the definite article in front of the words law, it gives it a complete different meaning then if they would have left it out as the original text has it. Because the word the is spicific or definite which makes the phrase (the Law) mean the ten commandments, But if the definite article is not there as it's is in the original text it would read, by works of Law shall no flesh be justified, another word it means by the way Law works (forced compliance) would no flesh be justified. These adding or omitting of the definite article does definitely change the texts.

    Many places where the word God appears there should be the definite  article there, and should be read (The God) not God in a general sense.

    Also is is my understanding that the word (Only) should be (Unique) so the text should have read uniquely begotten son, not only begotten son.

    We need to all remember the text we have went from the original language spoken by Jesus and the Apostles (more likely Aramaic) into Greek or Latin then into English. And a lot of influenced thinking was there too, errors are every where or we wouldn't have so many different translations, but i believe with God's spirit we can figure out enough to get to the basic truths.

    peace to you …………..gene


    Hi Gene,
    Maybe you can give me a couple on those verses in question regarding the article “the”.

    As far as the word “ony” these are definitions from two different sources as they define Strong's number 3439.

    NT:3439

    monogenes (mon-og-en-ace'); from NT:3441 and NT:1096; only-born, i.e. sole:

    KJV – only (begotten, child).
    (Biblesoft's New Exhaustive Strong's Numbers and Concordance with Expanded Greek-Hebrew Dictionary. Copyright  1994, Biblesoft and International Bible Translators, Inc.)

    The second definition from studylight.org:

    http://www.studylight.org/isb/view.cgi?number=3439

    single of its kind, only
    used of only sons or daughters (viewed in relation to their parents)
    used of Christ, denotes the only begotten son of God

    Blessings!
    LU

    #89836
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    lightenup………single of its kind, can also mean unique. Common sense would tell you thats what the text meant, because if you say only begotten son, then what do you do with all the scriptures that talk about all the sons of God, through them out?They were all begotten by GOD, and that includes us also. I contend when you put the sum of the scriptures together it can only mean unique.

    Here are just some of the scriptures where the article was added

    Gal 2:16…> Knowing that a man is not justified by (the) works of (the) .
    Greek ……> Knowing that a man is not justified by works of law. (no definite article)

    Gal 3:2……> This only would i learn of you, received; you the Spirit by (the) works of (the) law or by (the) hearing of faith
    GreeK……..> this alone i want to learn from you; from works of law the spirit you received or from hearing of trust.

    Gal 3:5 , 3:10 also notice Gal 3:6 the article (the) is in the Greek text (the God) meaning a particular GOD, but is not in our English text.

    Adding or not putting the definite articles in the text greatly alters it's meaning. And i noticed this is done in a lot of places epically in regards to God when it should read (the God) not just God.

    thanks……………..gene

    #89840
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Gene,
    Where does it say that angels were begotten? They are not begotten, they are created. The Son of God who comes in the flesh was born/begotten not created.

    I'll get to the article questions when I have time to look into it.
    Blessings, LU

    #89844
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    WJ……> in your exposition of Jesus' words, i noticed you didn't use John 17:8 or John 14:24 which speak expressly about the subject you were talking about,why not, is it because they prove you wrong about Jesus words being His own.

    It is evident you don't take all scripture into consideration on your explanations. Just ones you can contort to push your trinitarian theologies.

    John 17:8….> For I have given to them the words which You have given Me; and they have received them,

    John 14:24….> He who does not love me does not keep me words; and the word which you hear is (NOT) Mine, but the Father's who sent Me.

    WJ……why were these not used by you……………gene

    #89845
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Gene,
    I found this little bit in my “Basics of Biblical Greek” textbook on page 67. I will quote it:

    “When there is no article before the noun or adjective, check the context to determine your translation. Be sure not to supply the article in your translation unless English demands it.”

    If I find out anything else, I will let you know.

    LU

    #89848
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    lightenup……> but do you see how the definite article changes the text? If i say be works of the law i am talking about the ten commandments, but if i say by works of law, i am talking how law in a general sense works, another words (forced compliance) and may not be talking about the ten commandments at all.

    Then i would make the conclusion that Paul was saying a person can not be justified by forcing him, because (Law) works by forced and so Paul was saying a who is forced to do right will not be Justified , why? because forcing someone to do right doesn't change them.
    in their Heart.

    I think if translators wanted to stay true to the Greek text they should have used the article where it is found in the Greek text and don't put it in where it's not in the Greek text
    when translating to English.

    IMO………..gene

    #89850
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    Quote (WorshippingJesus @ May 27 2008,06:29)
    This is why I believe that to reconcile all the Biblical data, the Trinitarian view best explains the scriptures.


    There it is right there. You said it yourself.

    You read scripture with a Trinitarian understanding because that is how you get some understanding of scripture. I have said before that this is how your mind works and now here you are agreeing with my words.

    As I have quoted before, “you can get vinegar from a sponge, so long as the sponge is first soaked in vinegar”. WJ, your understanding is soaked in Babylon thinking, so you will always get that same understanding from scripture. That is how all cults work. They give you the understanding, and then scripture is always seen in the light of the doctrine that you accept. Mormons, JWS, Trinitarians, Unitarians, and Binatarians can all read scripture with their understanding and not feel threatened by scripture at all. They all do the same thing. The difficult scriptures are overcome by ignoring them, believing a lame explanation for them, or by using a translation that best suits their predefined belief.

    But it is better to read scripture and let it give you the understanding. If you process everything through a formula, then you are relying on the formula and you will finish with the formula.

    Romans 8:14
    because those who are led by the Spirit of God are sons of God.

    #89867
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Hi Gene,
    I agree with your point that by adding or deleting the “the” in translations can give a different twist to the meaning. That is why it is good to know the original languages and understand translation principles before assuming the translators are wrong. I assume that the translators know more than I do about the original language but they are also human and look through different glasses than I. Also, context is king and will help clear up alot of the confusion.

    Take care,
    LU

    #89868
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    lightenup…….you are right they were looking through different glasses, they were trinitarian glasses.

    peace to you……….gene

    #89885
    Lightenup
    Participant

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ May 28 2008,09:55)
    lightenup…….you are right they were looking through different glasses, they were trinitarian glasses.

    peace to you……….gene


    Hi Gene,
    Probably so and I appreciate there hard work. If they hadn't done what they did I would be much further behind in my Bible Study :) It would take sooooooo much longer!! Even though I am not a trinitarian, I say a big THANK YOU to all Bible translators out there. It is because of them that we can begin to study God's word. By the way, do you know of any Bibles out there that God has used “Oneness” believers' to translate? Just Curious??

    Peace back to you…..LU

    #89911
    GeneBalthrop
    Participant

    Lightenup…….No i don't, i have several different bibles and Greek translations i use but truthfully if we use the (SUM) of God's words on a subject we can pretty much get to the truth especially with spiritual guidance He give.

    peace to you and yours…………….gene

    #89919
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi GB,
    John the baptist, whose birth preceeded that of Jesus, said Jesus was before him.
    What did he mean?

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