Quote (jammin @ Aug. 12 2012,21:08)mike,you are insisting individual being in phil 2.6can you read any translation that says individual being in phil 2.6ill wait mikeActually, you might want to read my post again, jammin. I didn't “insist” on anything. I asked YOU what YOU think Paul meant by the word “God” in Phil 2, and then offered MY opinion…[Read more]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,20:47)Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 13 2012,13:41)So you're saying that when the AKJV Bible Society translated the scriptures into, say, Spanish, they didn't use the Hebrew and Greek texts, but just re-translated their English translation into Spanish?Are you sure?Hi Mike,I believe that is the case.God blessEd…[Read more]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,20:45)Is this verse not speaking of Herod's intentions?”intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.” (Acts 12:4)God blessEd JWell, If Luke, who wrote Acts, was intending to say that Herod was going to bring Peter out after HE was done celebrating Easter, then Luke most likely would have used a Greek word…[Read more]

Yep. Gene, do you see that we're all on to you? If you want to be considered “credible” on this site, you're going to have to start dealing with our direct questions.

Quote (Lightenup @ Aug. 12 2012,20:43)Well, you would have a hard time proving that Jesus had to or didn't have to develop before He was begotten before the ages.But the DEFAULT is that one who is begotten didn't exist prior to being begotten, so it is YOU who needs to prove that something other than the default happened in the case of Jesus.And…[Read more]

Good luck, Ed.  Gene doesn't like to directly answer questions in that manner.  You'll probably just end up with yet another novel explaining how if you could only understand what a spirit is, then it would all fall into place for you.  

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,20:15)Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 13 2012,12:56)Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,18:22)Hi Mike,The AKJV Bible society has translated it into “ALL” the major languages of the world.Translated WHAT?  The Hebrew and Greek texts?  Or their English translation of the Hebrew and Greek texts?Hi Mike,The English translation of the H…[Read more]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,20:05)Herod was referring to the pagan 'Ishtar Celebration'  –  NOT the Jewish “Passover”.God blessEd JI wasn't aware that Herod wrote the book of Acts. And if it wasn't Herod doing the writing, then it wasn't Herod who was “referring” to anything at all.

Quote (bodhitharta @ Aug. 12 2012,17:58)Quote (Lightenup @ Aug. 13 2012,07:53)Mike,you said:Quote I know from much experience with Kathi that her secular information doesn't ever end up proving the point she was “slickly” trying to prove with it.Oh, really…do you still think that the child did not exist before he/she was born/begotten? I believe…[Read more]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,18:22)Hi Mike,The AKJV Bible society has translated it into “ALL” the major languages of the world.Translated WHAT? The Hebrew and Greek texts? Or their English translation of the Hebrew and Greek texts?

Quote (journey42 @ Aug. 12 2012,19:44)Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 13 2012,05:29)From Barnes:Intending after Easter – There never was a more absurd or unhappy translation than this. The original is simply after the Passover (μετὰ τὸ πάσχα meta to pascha. The word “Easter” now denotes the festival observed by many Christian churches in honor of the…[Read more]

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,18:14)NO,The text is clearly referencing Herod, not the Jewish passover. What does that even mean?

Quote (Ed J @ Aug. 12 2012,18:07)Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 13 2012,02:17)Quote (jammin @ Aug. 11 2012,20:23)paul did not say form of nature.I agree.Paul said “form of God“, right?  And what did Paul mean by “God”?  Did he mean a species of beings?  Or did he mean an individual being?Hi Mike,How many times has Jammin 'ignored' this question no…[Read more]

Kerwin,I'm not going to argue semantics on your last post just yet, because it seems God is starting to get you to the place of truth.What you have done is equate the beings of Paul and the other elect, (who will be without their flesh bodies in heaven), with the being of Jesus, (before he received his flesh body on earth).  And that means you…[Read more]

Nope. I just clicked on the link, copied, and pasted.

Quote (Lightenup @ Aug. 12 2012,13:59)Quote (mikeboll64 @ Aug. 12 2012,14:44)Yes.  That is where the green quotes came from.Yes I realize that, Mike. I am having trouble copying and pasting from it, though but it seems that you were able to. I will try again. My computer is cooler than yours. Ha ha!

Quote (Lightenup @ Aug. 12 2012,13:54)The cell containing ALL the 'puzzle pieces' would be the parent and the offspring within it would be the offspring.So then Jesus was also “divided” from God with the puzzle pieces for a THIRD God already inside him?Kathi, this is the wrong thread. Let's keep this about the Peshitta and not make it a general…[Read more]

And now all YOU have to do is prove that claim. Wasn't it you who once said that the “default understanding” will always take precedence UNLESS there is clear evidence to the contrary?Where is this “CLEAR evidence” that Jesus was the only being who was ever brought forth from his father without first being subject to a time when he didn't…

Yes. That is where the green quotes came from.

From Barnes:Intending after Easter – There never was a more absurd or unhappy translation than this. The original is simply after the Passover (μετὰ τὸ πάσχα meta to pascha. The word “Easter” now denotes the festival observed by many Christian churches in honor of the resurrection of the Saviour. But the original has no reference to that, nor…[Read more]