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- February 19, 2014 at 1:34 am#373148mikeboll64Blocked
Okay, so we have an entity other than God Himself, complete with its own “form”, who was dwelling with God in the beginning, right?
And you are saying that this separate entity did in fact become a person when it was made flesh?
Did it become the person Jesus Christ?
February 20, 2014 at 5:25 pm#373147kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 19 2014,06:34) Okay, so we have an entity other than God Himself, complete with its own “form”, who was dwelling with God in the beginning, right? And you are saying that this separate entity did in fact become a person when it was made flesh?
Did it become the person Jesus Christ?
Mike,Yes, it took on the attribute of being a person and that person was Jesus.
February 21, 2014 at 1:27 am#373146mikeboll64BlockedI don't understand that “took on the attribute of being a person” thing.
Did the Word actually BECOME Jesus Christ, or not?
February 21, 2014 at 7:17 pm#373145kerwinParticipantMike,
I know that God is love means that God has the attribute of love. Jesus is the light means Jesus has the attribute of being the light. It seems it is reasonable that knowing these things that the word was made flesh means that the word was given the attribute of flesh. It is my understanding that is equivalent to saying that the word is given the attribute of being a person. Whether I am right or not on that understanding I know that the word was made flesh means that Jesus came to personalize the word. It does not mean that the word literally became the word just like God is love does not mean that God is literally love.
February 22, 2014 at 5:28 pm#373144mikeboll64BlockedAnd what does “given the attribute of being a person” entail?
Because it sounds like it means “BECOMING a person”.
What exactly is “the attribute of being a person”? Wouldn't it include having a body, a soul, a spirit, legs, a brain, a heart, a will, etc. ?
February 22, 2014 at 6:47 pm#373143kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 22 2014,22:28) And what does “given the attribute of being a person” entail? Because it sounds like it means “BECOMING a person”.
What exactly is “the attribute of being a person”? Wouldn't it include having a body, a soul, a spirit, legs, a brain, a heart, a will, etc. ?
Mike,Jesus is appointed to the role that God's word formerly held alone and that he also personifies that word.
February 22, 2014 at 8:29 pm#373142mikeboll64BlockedSo when Jesus got appointed to that role that the Word formerly held, what happened to the Word? Was he fired? Was he destroyed?
February 22, 2014 at 11:48 pm#373141kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 23 2014,01:29) So when Jesus got appointed to that role that the Word formerly held, what happened to the Word? Was he fired? Was he destroyed?
Mike,God now speaks his word and does his works through Jesus.
February 23, 2014 at 7:18 pm#373133mikeboll64BlockedSo the original “Word” that God spoke out of His mouth – or whatever – ceased to exist altogether? And the human being Jesus Christ took it's former role?
Is that what you're saying?
Because if it is, it sounds like a tricky way of saying that the original Word actually BECAME the being of Jesus Christ.
February 27, 2014 at 7:58 pm#373208kerwinParticipantMike,
Before God spoke his word to his angels and they carried out his commands. Now God uses Jesus to speak to his angels and they carry out his commands. It is similar to when Saul was made king to the children of Israel. No person held the position previously and each person did as he pleased. Now Jesus is king and he is not like Saul, who fell from God's grace but instead serves God loyally and faithfully.
February 28, 2014 at 12:47 am#373209mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Feb. 27 2014,12:58) Mike, Before God spoke his word to his angels and they carried out his commands……….
But God created the angels THROUGH His Word, right? What or who was “The Word” before there were any angels for God to speak to?Also, your last post seems to support your previous one in that you believe that the man Jesus Christ took over the responsibilities of “The Word of God”.
Is that correct?
February 28, 2014 at 7:46 pm#373210kerwinParticipantMike,
Yes, I think that is the correct way to say the Jesus became the conduit(mediator/facilitator) of the God's word.
March 1, 2014 at 1:36 am#373211mikeboll64BlockedWait a minute……… now you're changing it again.
If Jesus is the “conduit” OF the Word of God, then that “Word of God” is still out there, and Jesus is someone OTHER THAN that “Word of God”.
And that doesn't align with what you seemed to be saying before. It seemed you were saying that the Word became the flesh person of Jesus, so that the Word and Jesus are one and the same thing/being/whatever.
March 1, 2014 at 2:19 am#373212NickHassanParticipantoops a debate
March 1, 2014 at 11:42 pm#373140kerwinParticipantMike,
I am saying just the same thing I have been though I am using different words.
Previously, I said:
Quote God now speaks his word and does his works through Jesus. That sounds like a conduit of God's word to me.
I also said:
Quote Jesus is appointed to the role that God's word formerly held alone and that he also personifies that word. That also seems to meant the same thing.
I have not said the word is not still out there.
March 2, 2014 at 5:57 pm#373138mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Mar. 01 2014,16:42) Mike, I am saying just the same thing I have been though I am using different words.
Previously, I said:
Quote God now speaks his word and does his works through Jesus. That sounds like a conduit of God's word to me.
No Kerwin,That sounds like the Word used to be the conduit between God and men, but now Jesus is that conduit.
So is Jesus a conduit of God? Or of God's Word? And if the latter, who is God's Word a conduit of?
March 2, 2014 at 5:58 pm#373139mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Mar. 01 2014,16:42) I also said: Quote Jesus is appointed to the role that God's word formerly held alone and that he also personifies that word. That also seems to meant the same thing.
I have not said the word is not still out there.
So who is it that rides the white horse in Rev 19? Jesus? Or God's Word?March 2, 2014 at 6:26 pm#373136mikeboll64BlockedGene,
This is still a private thread…… although I've just opened the other private thread with Kerwin to all. The “Spiritual Bodies of 1 Cor 15” is now open to all posters.
March 2, 2014 at 6:33 pm#373137GeneBalthropParticipantSorry………..gene
March 3, 2014 at 6:07 am#373135kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 02 2014,22:57) Quote (kerwin @ Mar. 01 2014,16:42) Mike, I am saying just the same thing I have been though I am using different words.
Previously, I said:
Quote God now speaks his word and does his works through Jesus. That sounds like a conduit of God's word to me.
No Kerwin,That sounds like the Word used to be the conduit between God and men, but now Jesus is that conduit.
So is Jesus a conduit of God? Or of God's Word? And if the latter, who is God's Word a conduit of?
Mike,Of the four gospels only John speaks of it that I know of but he sates:
John 14:10
1599 Geneva Bible (GNV)10 [a]Believest thou not, that I am in the Father, and the Father is in me? The words that I speak unto you, I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
Footnotes:John 14:10 The majesty of God showeth itself most evidently, both in Christ’s doctrine and deeds.
In this case it sounds like he is literally the conduit of God's words. He also states that God dwells in him and he dwells in God and from that I understand the Spirit is in Jesus doing God's works.
Hebrews 1:1
1599 Geneva Bible (GNV)
The Epistle to the Hebrews1 At [a]sundry times and in divers manners God spake in the old time to our fathers by the Prophets: in these last days he hath spoken unto us by his [c]Son, …
Before God's Word did not go through Jesus but in these last days it goes through Jesus be it an angel, a prophet, or anyone else that speaks or does it went through Jesus first.
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