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- August 19, 2006 at 8:29 pm#24984
camrezaie
ParticipantI am just spectating now.. who is the one trying to spur the most ridiculous ideas out of everyones comments here? who is the one making assumptions about peoples beliefs and ultimately not providing proof straight from the scriptures but from other random documents?
i cant believe people just dont want to accept the fact that theos does NOT mean almighty god… theos can mean divinelike, divine, a god, godly, a king, a ruler… satan was called a god in 2 cor 4:4, men were called gods in psalm 82:6, Paul was called a god somewhere too, im not using my bible right now so im just thinking of verses from the top of my head…. somewhere in isaiah i believe jesus is called “a mighty god”… does that say he is ALMIGHTY god? you just need to stop avoiding these facts…
think about this for two seconds, i might have said this before but this is a VERY strong point… John 10:33-36… Jesus was accused of blasphemy and claiming himself equal to god, correct? did jesus deny this blasphemy and say he was merely calling himself the son of god? he backed himself up by saying he cannot do anything of his own iniative, there were many verses that i cant think of where jesus denied the blasphemy clearly… wasnt jesus killed for blasphemy by the romans? what is the trinity doing? its putting blasphemy upon the name of Christ. its claiming him of equal rights and attributes of god…. why would i want to side with the beliefs of the romans who killed jesus? especially when it was jesus himself who denied this blasphemy… how do you expect to be on jesus's side when your actually siding with the beliefs of the roman's who killed him? for those of you who believe in the trinity, good luck gaining the favor of Jesus Christ with the beliefs of those who killed him :/ …
August 19, 2006 at 8:33 pm#24985camrezaie
Participantso i meant to say stop using John 1:1 as proof because of what i said up there…. and besides how can someone be with god and also be him at the same time… makes no sense… and if youll look at the greek scriptures youll see their is actually a clear distinction between the god used to describe almighty god and the god thats used for jesus… the last greek letter if changed… and if youll look at the greek text in any other place where they call jesus a god like in matthew 20:28 it uses the same wording as the one they use for the word in john 1:1, but if youll also notice they can refer to almighty god with this version of theos used for jesus too, HOWEVER, the version of theos used for almighty god is NEVER used for jesus… one can only say that almighty god is THE divine and he is also A divine… but you can only say that jesus is A divine and not THE divine by this….
August 19, 2006 at 8:34 pm#24986camrezaie
Participantexcuse me i meant john 20:28 not matthew 20:28
August 19, 2006 at 9:56 pm#24989Oxy
ParticipantQuote (camrezaie @ Aug. 19 2006,21:33) so i meant to say stop using John 1:1 as proof because of what i said up there…. and besides how can someone be with god and also be him at the same time… makes no sense… and if youll look at the greek scriptures youll see their is actually a clear distinction between the god used to describe almighty god and the god thats used for jesus… the last greek letter if changed… and if youll look at the greek text in any other place where they call jesus a god like in matthew 20:28 it uses the same wording as the one they use for the word in john 1:1, but if youll also notice they can refer to almighty god with this version of theos used for jesus too, HOWEVER, the version of theos used for almighty god is NEVER used for jesus… one can only say that almighty god is THE divine and he is also A divine… but you can only say that jesus is A divine and not THE divine by this….
It is beyond man to understand God. Hence the good healthy debate. There is so much we can derive from Scripture, there is so much we can derive from knowing Him, and the rest is speculation.It is vanity to think we can understand God. He is far above us and His ways far beyond ours.
I have no difficulty with John 1:1, but having said that, I don't suggest that I understand it, but I accept it because it is Scripture and a very bold, provocative opening statement, designed I think to cause impact. LOOK, HERE IS THE WORD OF GOD, BORN AS JESUS!
Because Israel had always known of the Word of God, for Him suddenly to be with them in the flesh was indeed an awesome event! Hence the name immanuel, God with us!
August 19, 2006 at 11:15 pm#24994Proclaimer
ParticipantQuote (Oxy @ Aug. 20 2006,17:56) LOOK, HERE IS THE WORD OF GOD, BORN AS JESUS! Because Israel had always known of the Word of God, for Him suddenly to be with them in the flesh was indeed an awesome event! Hence the name immanuel, God with us!
Hi Oxy,Yes that is right, the Word became flesh. That much is certainly revealed in scripture.
Q: Now who was it who came in the flesh? Was it Jesus or God?
A: It was Jesus who came in the flesh. The antichrist spirit denies this of course.Jesus is also called the “Word of God” even in the Book of Revelation, which describes Christ in glory. God himself is the Father.
Think about this:
No one recorded in the scriptures were waiting for God to come in the flesh were they. They knew that the messiah of God was going to come though. Is that not the true confession? Is this not what Peter declared and with what Jesus commended and built his Church on?This messiah did not come in his own name but the name of his Father. He came to this world and guess what? God was in him.
2 Corinthians 5:19
that God was reconciling the world to himself in Christ, not counting men's sins against them. And he has committed to us the message of reconciliation.So if God was IN Christ redeeming the world back to himself, then who is Christ? Can you see how such an assumption just makes Jesus disappear? Or how can Almighty God be in Almighty God. That makes 2 Gods which is a breach of the first commandment.
When we deny that God was in Christ and instead say that Christ is God, then we have misplaced Jesus altogether and denied that he exists as another with whom God dwelt inside.
As someone once said “What have they done with our Lord”. They have somehow made him disappear.
Oxy, would you believe if I showed you a scripture that says that Christ isn't the Almighty God?
August 19, 2006 at 11:23 pm#24995Is 1:18
ParticipantQuote (camrezaie @ Aug. 19 2006,21:33) so i meant to say stop using John 1:1 as proof because of what i said up there…. and besides how can someone be with god and also be him at the same time… makes no sense… and if youll look at the greek scriptures youll see their is actually a clear distinction between the god used to describe almighty god and the god thats used for jesus… the last greek letter if changed… and if youll look at the greek text in any other place where they call jesus a god like in matthew 20:28 it uses the same wording as the one they use for the word in john 1:1, but if youll also notice they can refer to almighty god with this version of theos used for jesus too, HOWEVER, the version of theos used for almighty god is NEVER used for jesus… one can only say that almighty god is THE divine and he is also A divine… but you can only say that jesus is A divine and not THE divine by this….
Hello camrezaie,
I wonder if you can clarify for me and Oxy exactly what you mean by what you wrote here (the highlighted part). I personally think you are just parroting the Watchtower argument, even though you appear clueless about the actual Greek in John 1:1 and John 20:28. I think you are well out of your depth, but we'll see I suppose….In your own words can you plainly explicate the grammatical point you are trying to make.
Also, according to you how many divine beings exist?
- one?
- two?
- many?
Thanks