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- April 17, 2006 at 10:18 pm#12822NickHassanParticipant
Hi,
Jesus far more often calls himself 'Son of Man' than 'Son of God' in scripture.
What does it mean?
Does it mean he is really one of us or is it just a meaningless title?April 17, 2006 at 11:03 pm#12823davidParticipantJesus’ application of this expression to himself clearly showed that God’s Son was now indeed a human, having ‘become flesh’ (Joh 1:14), having ‘come to be out of a woman’ through his conception and birth to the Jewish virgin Mary. (Ga 4:4; Lu 1:34-36) Hence he had not simply materialized a human body as angels had previously done; he was not an incarnation but was actually a ‘son of mankind’ through his human mother.—Compare 1Jo 4:2, 3; 2Jo 7
For this reason the apostle Paul could apply Psalm 8 as prophetic of Jesus Christ. In his letter to the Hebrews (2:5-9), Paul quoted the verses reading:
: “What is mortal man [´enohsh´] that you keep him in mind, and the son of earthling man [ben-´a·dham´] that you take care of him? You also proceeded to make him a little less than godlike ones [“a little lower than angels,” at Hebrews 2:7], and with glory and splendor you then crowned him. You make him dominate over the works of your hands; everything you have put under his feet.” ” (Ps 8:4-6; compare Ps 144:3.)Paul shows that, to fulfill this prophetic psalm, Jesus indeed was made “a little lower than angels,” becoming actually a mortal “son of earthling man,” that he might die as such and thereby “taste death for every man,” thereafter being crowned with glory and splendor by his Father, who resurrected him.—Heb 2:8, 9; compare Heb 2:14; Php 2:5-9.
April 17, 2006 at 11:09 pm#12824NickHassanParticipantamen
April 19, 2006 at 5:11 am#12842NickHassanParticipantHi,
Jb 14.1
“Man, who is born of woman, is short lived and full of turmoil”
Jb15.14
“What is man, that he should be pure, or he who is born of a woman, that he should be righteous?”
Jb 25.4
“How then can a man be just with God? Or how can he be clean who is born of woman? Even if the moon has no brightness and the stars are not pure in His sight, how much less man, that maggot, and the son of man, that worm!”
Gal 4.4
“But when the fullness of time came, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the Law, so that he might redeem those who were under the Law, that we might receive the adoption as sons”April 27, 2006 at 10:00 pm#13033NickHassanParticipantHi Malcolm,
If Mary is only the surrogate mother and Joseph the foster father of Jesus Christ, how can he lay claim to the term “Son of Man”?April 27, 2006 at 10:52 pm#13037malcolm ferrisParticipantSon of Man is used in the old testament in reference to prophets.
Now what is a prophet? According to Jesus a prophet is God to the people.
Why? Because the Word of the Lord comes to the prophets.
Yet when the anointing of God left those men they were ordinary men again.
Take for example Elijah who boldly declared to the King of Israel that not even dew was going to fall from heaven until he called for it, he did this under the anointing of the Word of God.
As soon as the anointing left him he turned and ran from the threats of Jezebel.So Son of Man refers to a prophet, one who is anointed with God's Spirit to speak His Word.
From this we can see that Son of Man is not merely speaking of an ordinary man, but one chosen to bear the anointing of God. So there is two parts to Son of Man – Man and God.In John 5:27 Jesus explains that as Son of Man he is authorized to execute the judgements of God. A prophet, like a Judge was able to interpret the Law (Word). That was the complaint of the people to Moses, “Who made you to be a judge over Israel?” who? God!
Now Jesus was more that a Son of Man, he was THE Son of Man. The king of the prophets.
You will also notice that he did not call himself the Son of David, why?
because he was not there at that time to be a king, Son of David – alludes to his role and title in the Millenial reign to come.April 27, 2006 at 10:58 pm#13039NickHassanParticipantHi Malcolm,
Does not “Son of man ” mean exactly as it reads then?
When Daniel saw someone “like a son of man” in Dan 7 was he seeing a prophet then according to your slightly obtuse explanation?April 27, 2006 at 11:08 pm#13042malcolm ferrisParticipantAre you referring to Dan 7:13 where Daniel saw one like to the son of man coming with the clouds of heaven?
I believe that it was common knowledge amongst the Jewish believers that Messiah when he came would be a prophet (Duet 18:15) That's clearly who this one is the Messiah coming with the clouds of heaven. (Matt 24:30)April 27, 2006 at 11:12 pm#13043NickHassanParticipantHi Malcolm,
So where is it written that “son of man” means “prophet”?
Only Ezekiel was constantly referred to as “son of man”
eg Ez 6.2
“Son of man, set your face towards the mountains of Israel..”?Ezekiel was, like us, and like Christ LITERALLY a son of man.
April 27, 2006 at 11:17 pm#13044malcolm ferrisParticipantWhat meaning does the term the sign of the Son of Man have then in Matt 24:30
If it just means the sign of a man like us then what is that sign?April 27, 2006 at 11:25 pm#13045malcolm ferrisParticipantIf Son of Man only means a man like you and I then is that the form Jesus will be in when he returns? We are told the days of the Son of Man will return, who will that Son of Man be then? Will it be the same Son of Man that came that returns? Surely it would have to be if it is a true return. So is Jesus going to return in the same form as he was then? I thought he was glorified at his resurrection, then he would not be able to return as the Son of Man would he? For he would not be a man just like us, rather a man who can never die, being in a glorified body.
April 27, 2006 at 11:52 pm#13047NickHassanParticipantHi Malcolm,
Surely the form seen in Dan 7 was the form of THE Son of man in his new heavenly body returning to be glorified by the Father again after his mission of triumph on earth. It seems we will still be recognisably like we are now, except be sexless like the angels, but the substance of our body will be imperishable.April 27, 2006 at 11:59 pm#13048malcolm ferrisParticipantI don't beleive you can use the term Son of Man as prove that Jesus was a man with the genetic material of fallen man any more that Son of David can be used to prove that he had the literal genetics of David through Mary and Joseph.
Jesus was of the lineage of David by the Law, not by literal genetic lineage through Joseph. As you know. That was how God accomplished this to satisfy the title Son of David.
So when it comes to Son of Man… Jesus was a man, undoubtably.April 28, 2006 at 12:08 am#13049NickHassanParticipantHi Malcolm,
What makes a man?Genesis says man is of the dust.
“Remember man that thou art dust and unto dust thou shalt return”
Was Jesus like us of the dust?
April 28, 2006 at 12:12 am#13050malcolm ferrisParticipantNUMBERS 23:19
God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?This is the first time this term is used in the bible, the son of man, and it says of the son of man that he is not a man that he should repent!
Letting us know that the Son of Man may be manifest in a man, but what is manifest is not man but God in the man…April 28, 2006 at 12:41 am#13056NickHassanParticipantQuote (malcolm ferris @ April 28 2006,01:12) NUMBERS 23:19
God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he spoken, and shall he not make it good?This is the first time this term is used in the bible, the son of man, and it says of the son of man that he is not a man that he should repent!
Letting us know that the Son of Man may be manifest in a man, but what is manifest is not man but God in the man…
Hi Malcolm
” God is not a man, that He should lie, nor a son of man, that he should repent..”
This refers not to THE son of man but A son of man surely.April 28, 2006 at 12:46 am#13057malcolm ferrisParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ April 28 2006,01:08) Hi Malcolm,
What makes a man?Genesis says man is of the dust.
“Remember man that thou art dust and unto dust thou shalt return”
Was Jesus like us of the dust?
Did Jesus return to the dust?April 28, 2006 at 1:00 am#13058malcolm ferrisParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ April 28 2006,01:08) Hi Malcolm,
What makes a man?Genesis says man is of the dust.
“Remember man that thou art dust and unto dust thou shalt return”
Was Jesus like us of the dust?
Redeem means to buy back, restore means to bring back to a former status or glory
Our redemption is all about being brought back to a status and position that we formerly had.
Hence our names are placed in the Lamb's book of life.
What is redeemed? The Soul.
Mankind fell in the flesh, and the flesh returns to its origin.
But the soul is dragged down with the body in sin and so must be redeemed.
The flesh shall also be restored in a glorified body and this will never die or return to its original components.The soul is dragged down with the body in sin and so we needed one to come who was without the sin nature. That is why his soul could not remain in hell nor his body in the grave.
The original intention for the flesh body was not to return to the dust but to go on to the tree of life and live forever. Sin and the resultant curse interrupted this plan for a season.April 28, 2006 at 2:27 am#13069NickHassanParticipantQuote (malcolm ferris @ April 28 2006,01:46) Quote (Nick Hassan @ April 28 2006,01:08) Hi Malcolm,
What makes a man?Genesis says man is of the dust.
“Remember man that thou art dust and unto dust thou shalt return”
Was Jesus like us of the dust?
Did Jesus return to the dust?
Hi Malcolm,
No he did not but Gen 2.7 says God formed MAN from the dust of the ground. You say Christ was never like us froim the dust?April 28, 2006 at 2:29 am#13070malcolm ferrisParticipantThis is going around in circles we have been here before…
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