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The Thinker wrote:
Quote King David was a prophet of God. In Psalm 40 he was Christ's mouthpiece. Christ spoke through David which necessarily infers that He was preexistence.
Jesus quoted that passage and did not claim he was speaking through King David at that time but he did state the prophecy was fulfilled in the hearing of the people in a certain synagogue in Nazareth.
Peter teaches that the spirit of Christ spoke through the prophets to tell of a time when the time of the Anointed One would come to be.
thethinker,Dec. wrote:[/quote]
(thinker)Quote Paladin,
It has already been shown that you are a novice in the Greek in that you have repeatedly denied that the Greek has a past tense verb. So I am surprised that you would come back for another beating.(P) You are entitled to your dreams just as I am entitled to mine. However, mine try to stay within the realm of reality.
No less an authority (I hate myself for turning to scholarship, and authorities, but I am forced) A.T.Robertson; M.A., D.D., L.L.D. – A Grammar Of The Greek New Testament – In the light of Historical Research; Page 343 beginning -(a) “The term Tense. It is from the French word temps, 'time,' and is a misnomer and a hindrance to the understanding of this aspect of the verb-form. Time does come finally to enter relatively into the indicative and in a limited way affects the Optative, infinitive, and participle.
But it is not the original nor the general idea of what we call tense. Indeed IT CANNOT be shown of any verb-form that it had originally ANY REFERENCE TO TIME. We must therefore DISMISS TIME FROM OUR MINDS our minds in the study of the forms of the tenses as well as in the matter of syntax.” [P.343-344]
(t) Paladin,
I perceive that you are taking Robertson out of context because one time before you did this and WJ and I both caught it. So check it again.Hmmmm!!! You may be on to something. I looked again, and it seems I did leave out an important symbol. See that little () with an 'a' between them? I left that off the original quote. Otherwise, it IS the complete context. Why don't you get someone to actually read pages 343-344 to you?
Did I post them too fast for you? You always DID seem to have a problem with actually reading what I post.
(t)
Quote The aorist tense in the indicative mood indicates action in past time. This is textbook Greek grammar. Certainly you would not ask us to believe that Robertson goes against the textbooks.
No, I would think the textbooks contradict Robertson. Does HE have a problem with that? Oh, right! He's not teaching anymore is he? Well there you have it. Wait till you see what people have to say about YOU when you quit showing up on these pages. That's life.
I will even separate out for you what ATR actually says about the issue that you seem to miss even again.
No less an authority (I hate myself for turning to scholarship, and authorities, but I am forced) A.T.Robertson; M.A., D.D., L.L.D. – A Grammar Of The Greek New Testament – In the light of Historical Research; Page 343 beginning -(a) “The term Tense. It is from the French word temps, 'time,' and is a misnomer and a hindrance to the understanding of this aspect of the verb-form.
[Time does come finally to enter relatively into the indicative and in a limited way affects the Optative, infinitive, and participle.]
But it is not the original nor the general idea of what we call tense. Indeed IT CANNOT be shown of any verb-form that it had originally ANY REFERENCE TO TIME. We must therefore DISMISS TIME FROM OUR MINDS our minds in the study of the forms of the tenses as well as in the matter of syntax.” [P.343-344]
Did you see it that time? That part separated by “[],s” Yeh! THAT one. READ IT.
Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 03 2009,16:32) The Thinker wrote: Quote King David was a prophet of God. In Psalm 40 he was Christ's mouthpiece. Christ spoke through David which necessarily infers that He was preexistence.
Jesus quoted that passage and did not claim he was speaking through King David at that time but he did state the prophecy was fulfilled in the hearing of the people in a certain synagogue in Nazareth.
Peter teaches that the spirit of Christ spoke through the prophets to tell of a time when the time of the Anointed One would come to be.
Kerwin,
Where do you find that Jesus quoted that passage? Your view that it was not Jesus who spoke is not possible. According to Hebrews 10 the one speaking said, “You have prepared a body for Me.” It was the body of Jesus. “You have prepared a body for Me.” Thus it was Jesus who spoke through the prophet.thinker
Quote (Nick Hassan @ Dec. 03 2009,08:40) Hi TK,
Polytheism is not for us.
For us there is one God, the Father.
Nick: You just named two: “God” and the “Father”! Do you think there are any more? TKIs God, Lord of all? Is God the “creator of heaven and earth”?
Is God our provider? Is God our healer? Is God our refuge and strength? Come on Nick, God is one God, many aspects!! IMO, TK
Quote (thethinker @ Dec. 05 2009,04:06) Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 03 2009,16:32) The Thinker wrote: Quote King David was a prophet of God. In Psalm 40 he was Christ's mouthpiece. Christ spoke through David which necessarily infers that He was preexistence.
Jesus quoted that passage and did not claim he was speaking through King David at that time but he did state the prophecy was fulfilled in the hearing of the people in a certain synagogue in Nazareth.
Peter teaches that the spirit of Christ spoke through the prophets to tell of a time when the time of the Anointed One would come to be.
Kerwin,
Where do you find that Jesus quoted that passage? Your view that it was not Jesus who spoke is not possible. According to Hebrews 10 the one speaking said, “You have prepared a body for Me.” It was the body of Jesus. “You have prepared a body for Me.” Thus it was Jesus who spoke through the prophet.thinker
You are correct that I got my Messianic prophecies concerned since the was Jesus quoted in the Nazareth synagogue came from Isaiah and not from Psalms. The one from Psalms is quoted in Hebrews 10:5-14 and speaks of the Anointed One first coming into the world.
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