The good news of Gods kingdom) Matt 24:14)

Viewing 7 posts - 81 through 87 (of 87 total)
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  • #947519
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    What is becoming clear are the inconsistencies of events recorded in the NT concerning the “end.” They’re chaotic and lack any cohesion. Every christian religion has their own interpretation of what the end will be and how it will unfold. And who is the “father of chaos” as taught by the christian world?

    That is what a mystery is all about. It speaks in symbols and at the right time, the righteous who study will see it. But many are those who guess the outcome out of season and from their own biases.

    #947520
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    When we left off you offered three suggestions to “the end of the age” and what you “believe” could be a possibility. From the sounds of it you aren’t sure of what the “end of the age” is.

    Correct.

    #947521
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    One more thought, if the Jesus is king during the millennial reign and people are deceived at the end when Satan is released; what does that say about his ruler ship if the number of people that come against the “saints and beloved city” are numbered as the “sand of the seashore”?

    You can lead a horse to water, but you can’t make him drink. After those days, there will be only horses that drink.

    #947523
    DesireTruth
    Participant

    @Proclaimer,

    Been awhile for those questions; but your responses unfortunately are a prime example of what the church says when it can’t answer a question they aren’t prepared for or don’t have an answer to and that’s to provide vague, none answers. To say the end is a mystery and is revealed thru symbols that only at the “right time” true understanding will be revealed only shows one has only studied what man believes will happen and there are many differing opinions on what will happen in the last days. What’s funny is everyone is reading from the same book and none are in-agreement. What’s more hilarious is each will claim the “Spirit of G-d” revealed it to them; if the “Spirit of G-d” revealed this understanding, why aren’t all in-agreement? Shouldn’t the “Spirit of G-d” be giving the same information to all he’s speaking to?

    Your “leading a horse to water” statement is so true; I have provided many examples and proofs of inconsistencies in the NT and instead of proving me wrong, one doubles down on what they have been taught is truth and call me a liar.

    A challenge:

    Read the first chapter of Hebrews and whenever the Tanakh is quoted, look up the source of the passage and ask if the writer used the passage is the correct context.

    Read chapter 7 of Isaiah and does the writer of Matthew use verse 14 correctly?
    Look into the birth account given of the Jesus, who fathered him, and how can the Jesus be of the line of David if she had never been with a man?

    In I Cor 15:3-4 Paul states “according to scripture” the Jesus was to die for the sins of mankind (does G-d accept a human sacrifice?), was to be buried, and raised on the third day; can you provide the passages that say the Messiah is to do this?

    Can you explain why one needs the Jesus when G-d said to repent, turn from one’s wickedness, and HE would remember it no more?

    I can’t make you drink, only point in the direction; start verifying and you WILL discover the truth. G-d’s waiting with arms open.

    #947526
    Keith
    Participant

    I had my VPN on, it doesnt accept vpn in this sight, My error, sorry

    #947545
    Proclaimer
    Participant

    how can the Jesus be of the line of David if she had never been with a man?

    Legally, through Joseph, since in Jewish tradition adoption or naming gave full rights to a father’s lineage; and possibly biologically, if Mary herself was also descended from David, as some believe Luke’s genealogy suggests.

    #947548
    DesireTruth
    Participant

    @Proclaimer,

    “how can the Jesus be of the line of David if she had never been with a man?”

    Legally, through Joseph, since in Jewish tradition adoption or naming gave full rights to a father’s lineage; and possibly biologically, if Mary herself was also descended from David, as some believe Luke’s genealogy suggests.

    Please site your source for “Jewish tradition saying an adopted child is given full rights to the father’s lineage.” What I’ve found is “according to Jewish law the child is hereditarily tied to his (or her) biological parents. If the child’s biological father is a Cohen or Levi by Jewish tradition, and the child is a boy, so too must he accept these priestly customs.” (source). Additionally, an adopted child’s connection to their birth parents is not severed like in most modern legal systems where the child’s connection to their birth parents IS severed and they have no longer have any legal connection, obligation, or rights to the child. (source)

    Numbers 1:2-4 confirms tribal affiliation is thru the father and not the mother, so the genealogical account given in Luke and associating it with Mary is meaningless. Besides, G-d said in I Chron 22:9-10 it is thru Solomon his kingdom will be established forever, NOT Nathan’s. Again, the lineage account of Luke’s is irrelevant and one has to wonder if it was put there to “correct” the mistake with Matthew’s account. However, a persons “Jewishness” does comes from their mother and we read this in Ezra 10, where the foreign wives and children were sent away because the men didn’t marry those of Israeli descent as G-d told them (Deut 7:3).

    Let’s continue with the Jesus’ birth account as given in Matthew, “Now, the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost. Then Joseph, her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a public example, was minded to put her away privately. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.” In this passage we are told Joseph and Mary are engaged and not married yet and Mary was found to be pregnant; upon this discovery Joseph was going to “put her away privately” (annul the marriage) because he wasn’t the father, therefore he must have thought she committed “adultery.” Imagine a fiance, who is now pregnant after being gone for months, tells you she didn’t sleep with anyone when she’s now sporting a nine month baby bump; are you going to believe her?

    In this passage we also read Mary was impregnated by the “Holy Ghost” which creates another problem for christianity; in II Sam 7:12-16 G-d tells David HE will “raise up your offspring after you who will go out from your body, and I will establish his kingdom…forever.” The Hebrew word here for offspring is “zera” and is a reference to descendants, one who is procreated, something produced after it’s own kind. Offspring is biological and as one who was adopted, I can never be connected biologically to my adoptive parents. Please explain your adoption theory again and how it fits with what G-d said. Since the Jesus is a product of the spirit of G-d and NOT the seed of Joseph, how can the Jesus be the Messiah prophesied in the Tanakh? This simple understanding nullifies the entire “christian” religion since the Jesus isn’t the “zera” of David and Solomon.

    How can evidence like this be ignored? What it really reveals is how little people actually know what the Jewish scripture says AND how it has been tossed to the side in favor of Paul’s Testament.

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