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Hi JA,
Indeed God is faithful and never leaves us or forsakes us.[Heb]
But we are not always aware of the wind of the Spirit.Quote (t8 @ Aug. 14 2010,13:56) Quote (Kangaroo Jack @ Aug. 14 2010,02:11) Fair enough t8. But on a thread I started about Nick's interpretation of 2 Corinthians 5:19 you said that I made an antichrist statement: Quote KJ,
God was in Christ.
The alternative is that God wasn't in Christ.
And it doesn't say that God is Christ.The first line is right, the second one is antichrist, and the third is not written.
Read it again Roo.God was in Christ.
The alternative is that God wasn't in Christ.The first line is right, the second one is antichrist.
I simply said that to say that God wasn't in Christ, is an antichrist statement because you would then be denying that he was the Christ by reason of the safe assumption that God was working through and in him.
If you said that God wasn't actually in Christ Jesus doing the work, then you would be denying pretty much the whole purpose of the Christ because the Christ is the anointed one.
I am sure that if you read it again, you will see that I correctly say that to deny that God wasn't in Christ would be an antichrist statement.
For further explanation and to not detract from this topic, read a new topic I created that is dedicated to this.
https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….447;r=1
t8,God was NOT “in” Christ in the manner you suggest when He offered up His body as a peace offering for sin. Show an example from the old testament when God was “in” the high priest as he offered up the peace offering? The offering up of the peace offering was the act of the priest. God either accepted or rejected the offering.
Our high priest offered up Himself as a peace offering. This was His own act. God was NOT “in” Him. God FORSOOK Him at this time!
In the op of this thread I gave George Smeaton's syntax of the Greek word “en” (in) as it is used in the context of 2 Corinthians 5. Smeaton was a great grammarian and lexographer in his day and is much more qualified than you and me. His syntax matches up with the immediate context of 2 Corinthians 5 and also with the general testimony of scripture.
Jesus Himself said that He would lay down His life on His own initiative (John 10). Paul said that “He Himself is our peace” (reconciliation, Eph. 2).
The word “in” often means “because of” and that's what it means in 2 Corinthians 5:19. “God was because of Christ reconciling the world to Himself.” Or, “God was reconciling the world to Himself because of Christ.”
After Jesus ascended into the heavenly sanctuary He continued His priestly work as a glorified man. Was God “in” Him then too? Again, the peace offering was the act of the priest. Likewise, Jesus' offering up of Himself as a peace offering was His own act. God just accepted it! At the time Jesus became the peace offering for sin He was on His own. “Who in His own person bore our sins in His own body on the tree.” This is the Christian faith! How could God have been “in” Jesus on the cross in the sense you say when He was clearly forsaken by God?
The anti-trinitarian view of 2 Corinthians 5:19 is an implicit denial that Jesus is truly and properly our reconciliation and Savior. You imply that He is a mere proxy Savior.
God forsook Jesus! This means that Jesus offered up Himself as our peace offering without the help of God. Anything God did “in” Him before that does not negate it.
the Roo
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