Punctuation in translation

[kejonn]

How did the translators know where to put commas into their translations? After all, commas placed in different places could totally change the meaning of a verse. For instance what if the following verse had been translated with commas in a different place?

1 Cor. 8:6 ORIGINAL – yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him.

COMMAS MOVED – yet for us there is but one God the Father, from whom are all things and we exist for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him.

See the implication? This would go from a verse that said there was “one God” to saying there was “one God the Father”.

I'm just curious what rules are used for punctuation.

Thanks!

[charity]

Hi kejonn, I agree with you.

I wonder IN THIS VERSE, if God is mentioning himself twice, SAYING….

of the mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ;  

KJV
Col 2:2 That their hearts might be comforted, being knit together in love, and unto all riches of the full assurance of understanding, to the acknowledgement of the mystery of God, and of the Father, and of Christ;  

Which in this case then if there is separate Mystery, Identity for the father, those comer changes will effect the meaning of the scripture.

I think it very rude how, the chapters are finished in the middle of the prophets prophesying, and a new chapter began “And Im thinking hey” let the Man finish, so you can't receive the full prophecy of the fathers many times over?

[Constitutionalist]

Never assume punctuation is inspired.

Oh here is one: Luke 23:43:

And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee[,]
To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.

And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee To day[,] shalt thou be with me in paradise.

[Author]

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