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Thanks Andrew. You are correct.
I want to establish exactly what he means by the Spirit speaking as opposed to Jesus speaking.
We read in scripture that Jesus said this and that. It says Jesus. While Nick I suppose would say that Jesus (flesh) counts for nothing, thus he would have written it as the Spirit in Jesus said this and that. He gets upset when I concur with the words in scripture and use the same words and terminology.Mocking the Spirit is unwise.
So you are not speaking then Nick, but the Spirit in you?
Yes/No.
TAKE THE Carnal view point, AND NOT UNDERSTAND THE TRUTH OF WHAT HE WAS SAYING,
So the carnal view of ‘I am’ is ‘I exist’ and the truth is ‘I am’ means ‘didn’t exist, but was only talking of existing in the mind of God’?
Wow, an opposite meaning is derived from the simple text.
Hi t8,
Are you mocking those who try to teach you to listen to the Spirit
or mocking the the Word of God?
T8…TELL ME WHO SAID THIS, “destory this temple and in three days “I” SHALL RAISE IT UP”, was the “I” mentioned there, GOD the FATHER by his SPIRIT speaking tgrough the mouth of JESUS, OR was it Jesus himself from his own spirit, speaking through his own mouth?
Do you believe THAT GOD WAS TRULY IN JESUS, by his “ANOINTING” spirit he recieved at the JORDON RIVER, and that GOD THE FATHER himself was actually speaking to us through JESUS?
T8…Jesus is not the ANOINTING SPIRIT HIMSELF, he was purely A flesh and blood human being that had the ANOINTING SPIRIT GIVEN HIM, JUST AS WE ALSO CAN.
WHY DO YOU CONTINUE TO TRY TOMAKE OUR BROTHER JESUS DIFFERENT THEN WE ARE, is it notbecause you have clearly bought into SATAN’S, “DOCTRINE OF SEPERATION”?
peace and love to you and yours. ……gene
T8….WHO does scripture say “spoke it us” was it Jesus or does it say “GOD SPOKE” TO US THROUGH A SON. JESUS never the Christ himself , he had the christ “anointing spirit” on him ,he was not born christ he became the anointed one when he recieved the spirit after he can into existence as a normal human being. 30 some years later he received the anointing spirit of God on him at the Jordan river, and after that he was he was tested 40 days in the wilderness, and then was sent out into the world to peach the gospel ofthe kingdom of God.
Why is this so heard foryouto understand T8?
peace and love to you and yours. …….gene
Hi Gene,
You wrote: “JESUS never the Christ himself”
Who is the liar? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Christ. Such a person is the antichrist–denying the Father and the Son. 1 John 2:22
Nick,
The word person is not a theologian tool. Those that are without Knowles or false misuse the word just as they do Scripture.
I agree the word but it is the heart that employs it not the word that is flawed or pure.
Trinitarians use it but they spin a lot of nonsense to explain their teach, which is an broken doctrine.
They claim that God is three sentients that are one individual, a triple minded God.
It is the message conveyed by the words of Scripture that is important and it is important God is not triple-minded but single minded.
Do you read in Scripture where God is not one mind in one individual?
Hi KW,
There are many things men imagine that are not written.
Should we indulge in speculation about the Lord God of Israel?
t8,
I said:
a) “Abraham your father rejoiced that he might see my day”or
b) “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day”Both speak of a day in Abraham’s future so clearly Jesus is not claiming his day is before Abraham’s.
Are you suggesting that Jesus came from the future then travelled to the past?
The point here is, how did Jesus know this about Abraham? The Pharisees said: “You are not yet fifty years old,” they said to him, “and you have seen Abraham!”. Within that context, Jesus said, “before Abraham, I am”.
I am going to stick to the obvious reading of these verses. I remain open to your view, but am not convinced.
I am suggesting that the unbelievers misinterpreted the words “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day” as Jesus claiming that Jesus’ day began during the life of Abraham.
What he is actually stating is that Abraham, the prophet, saw the day of Jesus in prophecy.
Jesus and I am/I have been {he} before Abraham was to become/became {father of Jews/many nations}
The unbelieving Jews would interpret his words on a physical basis but he meant them on prophetic basis. Even then they would not have interpreted them as saying he was born or existed before Abraham because the context does not justify those interpretation. Only unwritten doctrinal context of those that are biased by those beliefs explain such interpretations.
He has a similar conversation with the Samaritan woman at the well where she was speaking of physical water and he was speaking of Spiritual water. She caught on after a while but these Jews did not.
Note: The translation from Koine Greek to English is imprecise so I am trying to take it into consideration. The implied words are what a Jew would hear.
Here is an example when Jesus used “I am” to mean “I am he”
John 13:19Young’s Literal Translation (YLT)
19 `From this time I tell you, before its coming to pass, that, when it may come to pass, ye may believe that I am [he];
He does it in John 4:26, 6:20. and other places as well.
The evidence, other that Jews being the intended audience, that father of Jews/ many nations is implied by Jesus’ words in John 8:58 is that:
1) Genesis 17:5 states “I have made you the father of a multitude of nations”
2) Romans 4:18 states “…as a result, he became a father of many nations,..”
3) Not only does Romans 4:18 and John 8:58 use the same verb in Koine Greek, genesthai, but in both cases it is an Aorist Infinitive Middle.
4) All through the conversation the Jews are talking about being the Seed of Abraham and Jesus is addressing his fellow Jews on the subject.Nick,
Do you consider the meaning of your words before you write them down?
I say that because you just implied God is a dumb beast.
God is sentient, a dumb beast, or a vegetable.
When you deny he is sentient then you imply he is either a dumb or a vegetable and I give you credit for not thinking he is without thought.
Acting like a child and pretending you cannot see is foolishness. It is call a denial of reality. I assure you that is is not the fruit of the Spirit.
This is absurd because I have witnessed that you do not do what you say on this subject. It would be absurd anyways.
You would be wise to throw off all the false teachings of your youth. I believe it would aid you to understand the truth even more than you do.
Nick,
I seek to clear up confusion but only those that seek to hear and see will come to understand.
It is said that if you cannot voice an idea in your own words then your own word then you do understand it.
The title Son of God means different things to different people and yet I know of only know of two related but different meanings in Scripture. One is that those that have been given the words of God in the form of the Law are called children of the most High and the second is like it for those that receive the Spirit of God are called his offspring.
Never the less there are those that it means that Jesus is of the “one true God” species jut like God his Father and those that claim he is body of God’s body just like they also claim the angels are. These are the inventions of humanity though they use the words of Scripture.
Danny,
Nick is attempted be legalistic in insisting that the letter of the Law is holy. I instead say it is the message of Scripture that is holy.
Thank you for the support.
Nick,
I do not use my own concepts. Instead I use my own words. God is portrayed as a person in Scripture because he is shown as being sentient. If anything his sentience is greater than either humanities or the angels.
I am using sentient to mean self aware and sapient. The words are common in my circle as I read a lot of science fiction. They may difficult for those who do not deal with them as much. The dictionary states sapience is pretty much equivalent to wisdom.
God is a self aware individual who is full of wisdom.
Don’t let difficult words become obstacles to your understanding.
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