- This topic has 19,164 replies, 120 voices, and was last updated 1 year, 1 month ago by
.
- Posts
What answer? Jehovah says He is the ONLY elohim. Yet YOU say there are others.
How did you explain it?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,05:34) I don't know, Ed. What I know is that the very first time people had the opportunity to translate 1:1c as “a god”, they did so. Ed, have I now successfully taught you that 1:1c can be translated as “God” or “a god”? Or did you already know this FACT of translation?
Hi Mike,Since I'm unfamiliar with the Coptic languages article usages
or those that translated the bible into those languages,
your suggestion calls for speculation to whether
they translated it correctly into those
languages or not.Maybe the indefinite article must always be used in both those languages? …as I said: “I don't know”.
But I do know that in English the indefinite article cannot be used in John 1:1 without corrupting thee text.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,05:35) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:33) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,04:40) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,11:23) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 09 2012,11:33) Quote (Ed J @ June 07 2012,21:40) John 1:1 is about the HolySpirit: who is God, was God, and will always be God.
Hi Ed,That would mean God Almighty Himself became flesh, had the glory of His own Son, and died at the hands of human beings.
Hi Mike,That would mean God's spirit became flesh, had the glory as of the only begotten of the Father. (see Acts 10:18)
But you say that God IS His Holy Spirit, right? And if that is the case, then you are saying that God Himself became flesh and died at the hands of human beings.Nor does your claim answer why God's Holy Spirit (which you insist is God Himself) would have the glory, not of God, but of God's Son.
Hi Mike,When you body dies does your spirit die?
God bless
Ed J
No Ed. The spirit goes back to God who gave it.
Thank you Mike!“If the [HolySpirit] of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in
you, “HE” that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken
your mortal bodies by “HIS SPIRIT” that dwelleth in you.” (Romans 8:11)“as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them;” (2 Cor 6:16 )
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,05:37) What answer? Jehovah says He is the ONLY elohim. Yet YOU say there are others. How did you explain it?
Hi Mike,אלהים ĔL-ō-Hêêm can mean Judges, Leaders and false gods.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:48) But I do know that in English the indefinite article cannot be used in John 1:1 without corrupting thee text.
Actually Ed,The TRINITARIAN translation that causes God Almighty to be WITH God Almighty is the corrupted text. Duh……..how can God be WITH God?
Most sensible people know that God cannot be WITH God, Ed. In fact, let me remind you what the 25 TRINITARIAN scholars from NETNotes say:
The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God (this is ruled out by 1:1b, “the Word was with God”)This should be common sense to anyone with half a brain.
Now, I ask once again…………
Ed, have I now successfully taught you that 1:1c can be translated as “God” or “a god”? Or did you already know this FACT of translation?
Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:48) Hi Mike, Since I'm unfamiliar with the Coptic languages article usages……….
Doesn't matter, Ed. The fact is that the first language into which John was translated that uses an indefinite article translated 1:1c as “the Word was a god“.Ed, I once read a blog from a person from Greece. He said that while there are definitely Trinitarians in his country, none of them use John 1:1 as a proof text, because they all know John meant that the Word was a god, and not THE God he was with.
Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:55) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,05:35) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:33) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,04:40) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,11:23) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 09 2012,11:33) Quote (Ed J @ June 07 2012,21:40) John 1:1 is about the HolySpirit: who is God, was God, and will always be God.
Hi Ed,That would mean God Almighty Himself became flesh, had the glory of His own Son, and died at the hands of human beings.
Hi Mike,That would mean God's spirit became flesh, had the glory as of the only begotten of the Father. (see Acts 10:18)
But you say that God IS His Holy Spirit, right? And if that is the case, then you are saying that God Himself became flesh and died at the hands of human beings.Nor does your claim answer why God's Holy Spirit (which you insist is God Himself) would have the glory, not of God, but of God's Son.
Hi Mike,When you body dies does your spirit die?
God bless
Ed J
No Ed. The spirit goes back to God who gave it.
Thank you Mike!“If the [HolySpirit] of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in
you, “HE” that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken
your mortal bodies by “HIS SPIRIT” that dwelleth in you.” (Romans 8:11)“as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them;” (2 Cor 6:16 )
God bless
Ed J
Thank you for what? Speaking the scriptural truth, as always? Please explain to me in laymen's terms how the Holy Spirit (which you say IS God Himself) could become flesh (was it no longer a spirit after it became flesh?), and have the glory, not of God (who it really was, according to you), but of the only begotten OF God?
Did God beget Himself?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,06:17) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:48) But I do know that in English the indefinite article cannot be used in John 1:1 without corrupting thee text.
Actually Ed,The TRINITARIAN translation that causes God Almighty to be WITH God Almighty is the corrupted text. Duh……..how can God be WITH God?
Most sensible people know that God cannot be WITH God, Ed. In fact, let me remind you what the 25 TRINITARIAN scholars from NETNotes say:
The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God (this is ruled out by 1:1b, “the Word was with God”)This should be common sense to anyone with half a brain.
Now, I ask once again…………
Ed, have I now successfully taught you that 1:1c can be translated as “God” or “a god”? Or did you already know this FACT of translation?
Hi Mike,Can your spirit be with “The Mike”?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,06:20) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:48) Hi Mike, Since I'm unfamiliar with the Coptic languages article usages……….
Doesn't matter, Ed. The fact is that the first language into which John was translated that uses an indefinite article translated 1:1c as “the Word was a god“.Ed, I once read a blog from a person from Greece. He said that while there are definitely Trinitarians in his country, none of them use John 1:1 as a proof text, because they all know John meant that the Word was a god, and not THE God he was with.
Hi Mike,It does matter.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:58) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,05:37) What answer? Jehovah says He is the ONLY elohim. Yet YOU say there are others. How did you explain it?
Hi Mike,אלהים ĔL-ō-Hêêm can mean Judges, Leaders and false gods.
God bless
Ed J
Sorry Charlie,YOU said there are other elohim, but qoute Jehovah saying He was the ONLY one – as if He was speaking literally.
You can apply all the definitions to elohim that you want, but it won't change the fact the Jehovah said He was the ONLY of them, and yet there exist many others.
Are you willing to accept Jehovah was speaking EMPHATICALLY yet?
Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,13:24) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,06:17) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:48) But I do know that in English the indefinite article cannot be used in John 1:1 without corrupting thee text.
Actually Ed,The TRINITARIAN translation that causes God Almighty to be WITH God Almighty is the corrupted text. Duh……..how can God be WITH God?
Most sensible people know that God cannot be WITH God, Ed. In fact, let me remind you what the 25 TRINITARIAN scholars from NETNotes say:
The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God (this is ruled out by 1:1b, “the Word was with God”)This should be common sense to anyone with half a brain.
Now, I ask once again…………
Ed, have I now successfully taught you that 1:1c can be translated as “God” or “a god”? Or did you already know this FACT of translation?
Hi Mike,Can your spirit be with “The Mike”?
No Ed,It can't. But it DEFINITELY could not be with Mike if my spirit was Mike.
I cannot possibly be with myself.
Here's the question you keep avoiding:
Ed, have I now successfully taught you that 1:1c can be translated as “God” or “a god”? Or did you already know this FACT of translation?This answer suggests “Yes”
Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,05:35) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:33)
Hi Mike,When your body dies does your spirit die?
God bless
Ed J
No Ed.Hi Mike, no avoidance.
You have successfully taught no such thing!
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgEd,
Do you acknowledge the undeniable FACT that John 1:1c can either be translated as “God” or as “a god”? Because THAT is what I'm trying to teach you. Have I done that yet?
Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,13:41) This answer suggests “Yes” Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,05:35) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:33)
Hi Mike,When your body dies does your spirit die?
God bless
Ed J
No Ed.
How so?Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,07:34) Ed, Do you acknowledge the undeniable FACT that John 1:1c can either be translated as “God” or as “a god”? Because THAT is what I'm trying to teach you. Have I done that yet?
Hi Mike,Translating as you suggest would be adding to God's word, something God warns against.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,07:35) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,13:41) This answer suggests “Yes” Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,05:35) Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,12:33)
Hi Mike,When your body dies does your spirit die?
God bless
Ed J
No Ed.
How so?
Hi Mike,The Spirit of Mike would then be with God instead of with Mike.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgWithout my spirit, there is no “Mike”. My flesh cannot be “with” Mike. My soul cannot be “with” Mike. My spirit cannot be “with” Mike.
Quote (Ed J @ June 09 2012,14:51) Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 10 2012,07:34) Ed, Do you acknowledge the undeniable FACT that John 1:1c can either be translated as “God” or as “a god”? Because THAT is what I'm trying to teach you. Have I done that yet?
Hi Mike,Translating as you suggest would be adding to God's word, something God warns against.
No Ed,It wouldn't be adding to God's word.
The question remains the same:
Do you acknowledge the undeniable FACT that John 1:1c can either be translated as “God” or as “a god”? Because THAT is what I'm trying to teach you. Have I done that yet?Hi Mike,
The bible can be altered in any way people want,
that is why there are so many English versions.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
