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Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 05 2010,13:13) Mike Boll, It is my understanding that the Holy Spirit is what makes both Jesus and his students the light of the world but I will try to take time to test that tenet.
Kerwin………….You have it right brother.peace and love to you and yours……………………..gene
Hi Gene,
Messiah and Christ mean “anointed one”. Anointed means “set aside for a special purpose”.
You are confusing those who have received the Holy Spirit with those who have been anointed by God. Not everyone who receives the Spirit is God's “anointed”.
mike
Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 05 2010,13:13) Mike Boll, It is my understanding that the Holy Spirit is what makes both Jesus and his students the light of the world but I will try to take time to test that tenet.
Okay Kerwin.Read through John 1 and see if “Holy Spirit” fits into all that is said.
1. Did the Holy Spirit BECOME flesh? (Keep in mind the words don't allow for “came to be IN someone who WAS flesh”.)
2. Is God's Holy Spirit the “Son of God”? For this “Word/Light” that came into the world had the glory of God's only begotten Son.
3. Did John the Baptist come to pave the way for God's Holy Spirit?
4. Does the Holy Spirit wear sandals?
These are just a few of the questions you need to ask yourself as you're re-reading John 1.
peace and love,
mikeQuote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 05 2010,13:20) Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 05 2010,13:13) Mike Boll, It is my understanding that the Holy Spirit is what makes both Jesus and his students the light of the world but I will try to take time to test that tenet.
Kerwin………….You have it right brother.peace and love to you and yours……………………..gene
Hi Gene,WITHOUT CHANGING OR ADDING ANY WORDS OR CHANGING THE WORD ORDER OR GRAMMAR IN ANY WAY…….can you answer the questions I just asked of Kerwin?
mike
Bump for Gene:
Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 02 2010,00:57) That should be with the (NATURE) of GOD , Meaning He had GOD'S NATURE (because he recieved it at the Jordan River GOD was (TRULY) IN HIM T8 By the Spirit he recieved, and he never emptied himslef of that nature either,
Then why did Paul say he did Gene?
Gene, you didn't answer this question. You point out that it could mean either “form” or “nature” in Phil 2. But Jesus never “emptied himself” of the “nature” of God, right? So doesn't that lean you more to the word “form” in that scripture?
He existed in the FORM of God, but emptied himself and was made in the LIKENESS OF A HUMAN BEING.
What more do you need?
mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 05 2010,14:26) Hi Gene, Messiah and Christ mean “anointed one”. Anointed means “set aside for a special purpose”.
You are confusing those who have received the Holy Spirit with those who have been anointed by God. Not everyone who receives the Spirit is God's “anointed”.
mike
Mike……….Where on earth did you get that Anointing means set aside for a special purpose at. The word “anointing” simply implies to (APPLY) something if i anoint my head with old i am applying oil to my head , nothing (SPECIAL) about it. Anointing is simply the PROCESS BY WHICH SOMETHING IS APPLIED. It can be something special or it can mean something not special as we all anoint ourselves with water every time we bath. God (ANOINTS) us with His Holy Spiirt like one does with water. “FOR I SHALL (POUR) FORTH OF MY SPIRIT UPON ALL FLESH” it says. That pouring forth is an anointing on us. Again you never stop trying to (SEPARATE) Jesus form our identity with him. GOD ANOINTED JESUS WITH HIS HOLY SPIRIT, HE ANOINTS US WITH THAT SAME SPIRIT AND WE ARE CHRISTS (OR) ANOINTED ONES. But there are false (CHRISTS) OR FALSE ANOINTED ONES, ALSO, and there are REAL Christs or REAL ANOINTED ONES too. Can't you see how your preexistence view separate Jesus form our likeness and the Antichrist message it send? Just think about what you are saying that shows it plainly. IMOpeace and love………………………………….gene
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 05 2010,14:32) Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 05 2010,13:20) Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 05 2010,13:13) Mike Boll, It is my understanding that the Holy Spirit is what makes both Jesus and his students the light of the world but I will try to take time to test that tenet.
Kerwin………….You have it right brother.peace and love to you and yours……………………..gene
Hi Gene,WITHOUT CHANGING OR ADDING ANY WORDS OR CHANGING THE WORD ORDER OR GRAMMAR IN ANY WAY…….can you answer the questions I just asked of Kerwin?
mike
Mike……….The word Became , simply means (CAME TO BE) and anyone should know a WORD is (NOT FLESH) i believe a child could understand that. Look up in any dictionary the word “BECAME” it alway means a process of something. Example, the see became a watermelon , Now was the see always a watermelon NO IT BECAME or (CAME TO BE) ONE. The word of GOD (became ) or came to be (IN) Flesh , why because a word can never in a billion year (BE) FLESH. GET IT!> Jesus plainly said the words he was speaking WERE (NOT) HIS WORDS , so common sense would tell you He was NOT the WORDS HE SPOKE. He was not the author or the origin of those words he told us those words were GOD THE FATHERS WORDS. Because GOD and HIS WORD ARE ONE AND THE SAME THING. John 1:!1 is talking about GOD the FATHER and NOT about JESUS at ALL>If John meant Jesus was the WORD of GOD the He would have just wrote Jesus in the text , even commonsense should tell you that, John new how to spell Jesus' name. What John wrote is exactly what he mean , not one needs to change anything there, just except it as it is written without any hidden meaning fostered by Trinitarians and preexistences false Ideologies. IMO
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 05 2010,14:38) Bump for Gene: Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 02 2010,00:57) That should be with the (NATURE) of GOD , Meaning He had GOD'S NATURE (because he recieved it at the Jordan River GOD was (TRULY) IN HIM T8 By the Spirit he recieved, and he never emptied himslef of that nature either,
Then why did Paul say he did Gene? Gene, you didn't answer this question. You point out that it could mean either “form” or “nature” in Phil 2. But Jesus never “emptied himself” of the “nature” of God, right? So doesn't that lean you more to the word “form” in that scripture?
He existed in the FORM of God, but emptied himself and was made in the LIKENESS OF A HUMAN BEING.
What more do you need?
mike
Mike………My only answer to you is to read Philippians 2, completely and try to get exactly what Paul was saying by that. The issue had nothing to do with Jesus Pre-earth existence at all, but his earthly existence while he was on earth with the Nature of GOD in him and he did not try to rob GOD of glory by trying to be is equal even thought he had the fullness of GODS Spirit on him, but he took on the attitude of a humble servant being a man as he was, and gave glory to God the Father and served him even to death on the cross. And we should be like that, This is the ONLY Point Paul was driving at. But you as all trinitarians who are preexistences to, try to find some word and force it to means what in fact the context is not even saying , and then try to build a teaching around that single word. Pure hog wash . You do the same with John 1:1 and many other scriptures implying meanings that are not said to push you SEPARATIST VIEWS. These are all Antichrist teachings as John said , to those who have eyes to see.peace and love………………………..gene
Gene:
Quote Mike……….The word Became , simply means (CAME TO BE) and anyone should know a WORD is (NOT FLESH) i believe a child could understand that.
Yes Gene, a child CAN understand this, but apparently not you, huh?Gene:
Quote The word of GOD (became ) or came to be (IN) Flesh , why because a word can never in a billion year (BE) FLESH.
Good job Gene. You've made MY point for me.
Now even a child knows a “word” cannot become flesh. So one of two things are happening in John 1:14:1. The “Word” refers to a person, who CAN become flesh.
2. The “Word” refers to God's literal “words”. And as you have pointed out, even a child can understand how that can't be possible.
So which one is it Gene? Thankfully, we have Jesus being called “the Word of God” in Revelation, and we know Jesus “came in the flesh”, and we know “the Word” became flesh. We also know that Jesus is the only begotten Son of God, and we know that the Word who became flesh had the glory of the only begotten Son from God.
Hmmmmmmm………….. this is not so tough after all, is it?
Now the ONLY other way around these clear facts is for you to add the word “IN” into the sentence when it's not there. Only THEN can you make your claim that the Word “came to be IN flesh”. But like I keep telling you Gene, you can't just go adding and omitting words from scripture as it suits your doctrine. If you're going to do that, then why not just make up your own scriptures? Then you can make Jesus whoever you want him to be.
mike
Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 06 2010,02:50) Mike………My only answer to you is to read Philippians 2, completely and try to get exactly what Paul was saying by that.
No, no, no. Not so fast there “word-twister”. You said that the word should be “NATURE” and not “FORM” in Phil 2. Then you went right into saying that Jesus NEVER emptied himself of God's nature. But Paul said he DID empty himself of something Gene. So if Jesus didn't empty himself of God's nature, then it must have been the FORM of God that he emptied himself of, right?
What other choice do you have? It CAN'T POSSIBLY be “NATURE” if you admit that Jesus didn't empty himself of that, right?
And now, you would like to forget you ever said those words I bet. And you have avoided my post three times in an effort to do that. But now you realize that I'm like a pit bull who won't stop and I keep bumping it for you. So now that you feel “forced” to answer in an effort to make the queston just go away, you answer with “Mike, read Phil 2.”
And you call ME “slick”?
You are certainly precious Gene!mike
MIke…………So when Jesus said the FATHER is (IN) ME he in you opinion was lying right , Because the FATHER who IS GOD and HIS WORD was not according to you really (IN) Jesus. That is because you distort John 1:1 to mean the WORD was JESUS Not GOD. When in fact the WORD was NOT Jesus But GOD the FATHER and HE was (IN) Jesus SPEAKING to US. “FOR GOD AT DIFFERENT TIME (SPOKE) TO US THROUGH THE PROPHETS HAS IN THE LATTER DAY (SPOKEN) TO US (THROUGH) AS SON. Now who was SPEAKING was it Jesus or GOD the FATHER? Mike when is the light going to come on like it did for Thomas, MY Lord (AND) My GOD. GET IT?. GOD as the WORD (IN) Jesus, remember “THE FATHER WHO IS (IN) ME (HE) DOES THE WORKS”. Trying to make the word HIM is just another Separation of Jesus from GOD and From us also. The God who sent Jesus was (IN) Jesus. IMO
peace and love…………………………………….gene
Gene,
Sorry about this, but 'Anointing' in Hebrew terms does mean, 'Setting aside'.
This is how a person from among the people were chosen, 'set aside', for Kingship and Priesthood in God's name.
They are Anionted with Holy Oil, which is a special mixture and blend. Only the High Priest was allowed to mix and carry and administer the oil.
This is all in the book of Samuel and Kings.
And other Scriptures refer to the Spiritual Anointing…anointing with the Spirit of Holiness, the Holy Spirit.
Check again.
I haven't read the rest of the post so my response is only to that point.
Quote (Gene Balthrop @ Dec. 06 2010,03:22) That is because you distort John 1:1 to mean the WORD was JESUS Not GOD.
Well, we KNOW that Jesus was “the Word” in Revelation, right? We KNOW that a word cannot become flesh, right? And we KNOW that God didn't become flesh and dwell among us with the glory of His own Son, right?Now, stop diverting things and answer the points we've been discussing.
Answer the “nature” thing Gene. Answer about how John 1:14 doesn't contain the word “IN”.
Answer those points first Gene. If you can't answer them, then what use is it for me to follow you down the rabbit hole, as WJ would say.
mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2010,03:03) Gene: Thankfully, we have Jesus being called “the Word of God” in Revelation…
mike
Hi Mike,In Revelation both Jesus and “The Word” of God are mentioned…
Rev.20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment
was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded
for the witness of Jesus, [ [ [ AND ] ] ] for the word of God, and which
had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark
upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2010,03:47) Hi Mike, In Revelation both Jesus and “The Word” of God are mentioned…
Yes Ed.We've talked about this before. The “word of God” can be Laws and Commands that God has spoken. It can also refer to God's Chief Spokesman, who is also called “the Word of God”.
If you and Gene need any help deciding from the context which “word of God” is meant in any particular scripture – just ask, okay? We are all here to help.
mike
Wow Mike,
You sure are a God when dealing with Edj and Gene.Why are you not then able to do the same with others.
But then again Gene is so wrong that even a child could argue against him in this thread.
Perhaps this is your level…you found your level at last.
Just remember how hard it is to make others see what are obvious truths and see how they twist and writhe, and when you debate/discuss with me, remember not to do as they do.
Be honest, you will learn quicker that way, and in an honest, godly way.Quote (JustAskin @ Dec. 06 2010,11:44) Wow Mike,
You sure are a God when dealing with Edj and Gene.Why are you not then able to do the same with others.
But then again Gene is so wrong that even a child could argue against him in this thread.
Perhaps this is your level…you found your level at last.
Just remember how hard it is to make others see what are obvious truths and see how they twist and writhe, and when you debate/discuss with me, remember not to do as they do.
Be honest, you will learn quicker that way, and in an honest, godly way.
AJyou really can not read ,Mike does not talking for himself but for all on the site,
but you like to make it personal right??
it seems that you holding the blade of the knife you are pointing ,
Pierre
Quote (terraricca @ Dec. 06 2010,04:56) it seems that you holding the blade of the knife you are pointing , Quote (JustAskin @ Dec. 06 2010,04:44) Just remember how hard it is to make others see what are obvious truths and see how they twist and writhe, and when you debate/discuss with me, remember not to do as they do.
Be honest, you will learn quicker that way, and in an honest, godly way.
Who won our debate again JA?Post nicely my friend. We can discuss scripture without the personal belittlements and attacks, cant' we?
mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 06 2010,03:53) Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 06 2010,03:47) Hi Mike, In Revelation both Jesus and “The Word” of God are mentioned…
Yes Ed.We've talked about this before. The “word of God” can be Laws and Commands that God has spoken. It can also refer to God's Chief Spokesman, who is also called “the Word of God”.
If you and Gene need any help deciding from the context which “word of God” is meant in any particular scripture – just ask, okay? We are all here to help.
mike
Hi Mike,Can we count on you to tell us when God's Word is “literal physical” and
when its “Metaphorical Spiritual” too; how about when there are aspects of both?
Hey, wait a minute, isn't that the HolySpirit's Job? “The Word” is the “HolySpirit”; WAKE UP!
1Corinthians 2:10-11 But God hath revealed them unto us by his [HolySpirit]: for the Spirit searcheth all things,
yea, the deep things of God. For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man
which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God.Witnessing to the world in behalf of YHVH (Psalm 45:17)
יהוה האלהים (JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (AKJV Joshua 22:34 / Isaiah 60:13-15)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
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