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- October 1, 2010 at 3:03 am#218309Ed JParticipant
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 01 2010,12:40) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 30 2010,17:06) Hi Mike, If you add things up correctly, Jesus was always his name as you surmised; Mike!
Hi Ed,I have no scriptural reason to think Jesus WASN'T always his name. And 1 John 4:3 seems to say it was.
mike
Hi Mike,I agree that [יהשוע] YÄ-shü-ă was always Jesus name.
1John 4:3 offers no clue to this, it's only conclusive
to the FACT that the Messiah has indeed come!God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgOctober 1, 2010 at 1:43 pm#218336GeneBalthropParticipantMike……Another assumption on your part , now You are forcing the text to say Jesus' name existed before his berth on earth. Well that is the way you draw your conclusions and then latter say it is Proof of something it is not proof of as all you preexistences so called proof, which are no proof at all, just forcing the text to meet your false teachings. Actually in many ways you and EDJ are a lot alike your both force the text to meet you dogmas, His is Lucifer is Satan, and he just simply add the word satan to his posts, forcing his dogmas on others, and then there is his goofy number system that only he can understand . It is amazing to me how much the scriptures can be butchered and taken our of context to meet you dogmas and false teachings.
gene
October 2, 2010 at 1:42 am#218364Ed JParticipantQuote (Gene Balthrop @ Oct. 02 2010,00:43) Mike……Another assumption on your part , now You are forcing the text to say Jesus' name existed before his berth on earth. Well that is the way you draw your conclusions and then latter say it is Proof of something it is not proof of as all you preexistences so called proof, which are no proof at all, just forcing the text to meet your false teachings. Actually in many ways you and EDJ are a lot alike your both force the text to meet you dogmas, His is Lucifer is Satan, and he just simply add the word satan to his posts, forcing his dogmas on others, and then there is his goofy number system that only he can understand . It is amazing to me how much the scriptures can be butchered and taken our of context to meet you dogmas and false teachings. gene
Hi Mike,Congratulations Mike!
Gene has now compared you to me. (Matt.5:11-12)Matt.5:11-12 Blessed are ye, when men shall revile you, and persecute you,
and shall say all manner of evil against you falsely, for my sake. Rejoice, and be exceeding glad:
for great is your reward in heaven: for so persecuted they the prophets which were before you. (John 15:20-21)John 15:20-21 Remember the word that I(יהשוע) said unto you(Ed J),
The servant is not greater than his lord. If they have persecuted me(יהשוע),
they will also persecute you(Ed J); if they have kept my saying, they will keep yours also.
But all these things will they do unto you for my name's sake, because they know not him(יהוה) that sent me.Witnessing to a worldwide audience in behalf of YHVH!
יהוה האלהים (JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (Joshua 22:34 / Isaiah 49:16 / Isaiah 60:14)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org (Ecl.9:12-16)October 3, 2010 at 3:15 am#218469BakerParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 01 2010,12:40) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 30 2010,17:06) Hi Mike, If you add things up correctly, Jesus was always his name as you surmised; Mike!
Hi Ed,I have no scriptural reason to think Jesus WASN'T always his name. And 1 John 4:3 seems to say it was.
mike
Mike! I don't know for sure, but when it says in John 1:1 and Rev. 19:13-16 it says that He was The Word of God. Also is He not called Yahshua also in the Old Test.? Unless The Word of God is a title, I don't think that we really don't know for sure. Since He was in Heaven before the world was, and only became Jesus when He was a man, who knows…I think, if He was called Jesus before His walk here on earth, why does it not say so? There is no real clear Scripture that states that…. So we will just have to see then……1 John 4:3 only states that He came to earth.and became flesh, however that does not necessarily mean that He was Jesus before He became a man…..Also why does it not say in j
John 1:14that Jesus became flesh? …. see what I mean?……..IMO……Peace IreneOctober 3, 2010 at 4:05 am#218476terrariccaParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 01 2010,19:40) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 30 2010,17:06) Hi Mike, If you add things up correctly, Jesus was always his name as you surmised; Mike!
Hi Ed,I have no scriptural reason to think Jesus WASN'T always his name. And 1 John 4:3 seems to say it was.
mike
Mike1John 4;3 does not talking about Jesus in heaven,
but if you read from verse one to the verse 6 you will notice that what John saying is THAT THE ANOINTED ONE HAD COMES IN THE FLESH (ALL AS PER THE PROPHETS WRITTEN WORDS)AND IF WE DO NOT ACCEPT HIM THEN WE ARE NOT OF GOD.
because Jesus Christ was sent from God.Pierre
October 3, 2010 at 4:20 am#218481terrariccaParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 01 2010,19:37) Quote (terraricca @ Sep. 30 2010,15:27) Mike i only know one previous experience in scriptures that is HENOCH who was remove by God so he would not see the wickedness ,
in this view ,i would say that a person is not conscious of his own death,
Just like in the case of Stephen,he was looking up and reveal what he saw but unaware of what happen to him being stoned.
Hi Pierre,Matt 22:31-32 NIV
31But about the resurrection of the dead—have you not read what God said to you, 32'I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob'? He is not the God of the dead but of the living.”Doesn't this imply that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob had been resurrected? How about Moses and Elijah? One's body was never found, and the other was seen being taken up in a whirlwind from heaven:
2 Kings 2:11 NIV
11 As they were walking along and talking together, suddenly a chariot of fire and horses of fire appeared and separated the two of them, and Elijah went up to heaven in a whirlwind.Not to mention that they both were present at Jesus' transfiguration.
Is there something wrong with these scriptures? I get confused because Jesus also told Nicodemus that no one has gone into heaven except the one who came from heaven…..the Son of Man. And Jesus is called the “firstborn from the dead”.
I guess Jesus could have been saying that no one now present on earth has gone into heaven. And if Elijah, Moses, Abraham, Isaac and Jacob never went to Sheol, but were instead lifted right from life on earth to life in heaven, then Jesus would be the first to go from “real” death to heaven.
I don't know for sure Pierre. What do you think?
peace and love,
mike
Mikethe scriptures saying that unless God remembers you (book 0f live)your are death.
just like people walking and not serving God are called death.
so scriptures says that Christ is the first in all thing even from resurrection,
all the others have to die to be in heaven ,I mean the place for the godly men ,after death.
there is no works for the one who are death,but the spirit goes back to God who has given it.
the fact that they never found the body does not mean they are not death,
also remember that Moses was a image of the prophet to come after him ,and like they never found his body so the body of Christ was never found.
and as Elijah wen up in the air and vanish so it was with Christ. ( the shadow of the thing to come)
Pierre
October 5, 2010 at 3:03 am#218747mikeboll64BlockedHi Ed, Irene and Pierre,
NKJV 1 John 4:3
and every spirit that does not confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is not of God. And this is the spirit of the Antichrist, which you have heard was coming, and is now already in the world.I see what all of you are saying……..and I see I'm alone on this one.
When I read it, I think “How could JESUS come in the flesh if he wasn't JESUS before he came in the flesh?” It doesn't say “Jesus was made in the flesh”.
To me it says that someone who was already named Jesus……CAME IN THE FLESH.
It's not that important to me though. I just find it amusing sometimes how people just draw conclusions out of their own minds. People just ASSUME that our Lord didn't have the name Jesus from his beginning. How do they know this? Just because we weren't told about it?
We didn't know he was the only begotten Son of God until he said so to Nicodemus. But that doesn't mean he wasn't already the only begotten Son of God long before we knew about it, right?
The bottom line is that NO scripture says that Jesus WASN'T his name before he came in the flesh. And 1 John 4:3, while not stating it clearly, does indicate that it could be.
peace and love,
mikeOctober 5, 2010 at 3:05 am#218749mikeboll64BlockedHi Pierre,
Matt 22:31-32 NIV
31But about the resurrection of the dead—have you not read what God said to you, 32'I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob'? He is not the God of the dead but of the living.”You didn't mention this one in your response. Is Abraham dead or alive?
mike
October 5, 2010 at 3:17 am#218753mikeboll64BlockedWhere's Jodi Lee?
October 5, 2010 at 3:23 am#218754BakerParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 05 2010,14:17) Where's Jodi Lee?
Mike! Jodi comes for awhile, to make a few posts and disappears again….. Nothing new. IreneOctober 5, 2010 at 3:27 am#218757Ed JParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 05 2010,14:03) Hi Ed, Irene and Pierre, NKJV 1 John 4:3
and every spirit that does not confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is not of God. And this is the spirit of the Antichrist, which you have heard was coming, and is now already in the world.I see what all of you are saying……..and I see I'm alone on this one.
When I read it, I think “How could JESUS come in the flesh if he wasn't JESUS before he came in the flesh?” It doesn't say “Jesus was made in the flesh”.
To me it says that someone who was already named Jesus……CAME IN THE FLESH.
It's not that important to me though. I just find it amusing sometimes how people just draw conclusions out of their own minds. People just ASSUME that our Lord didn't have the name Jesus from his beginning. How do they know this? Just because we weren't told about it?
We didn't know he was the only begotten Son of God until he said so to Nicodemus. But that doesn't mean he wasn't already the only begotten Son of God long before we knew about it, right?
The bottom line is that NO scripture says that Jesus WASN'T his name before he came in the flesh. And 1 John 4:3, while not stating it clearly, does indicate that it could be.
peace and love,
mike
HI Mike,You're not alone in your belief!
I believe he preexisted (as well as all of us too)
and that Jesus ([יהשוע] YÄ-shü-ă) was always his name as well!
I'm just pointing out to you that 1 John 4:3 is not conclusive to this by any means.Yes; 1 John 4:3 added together with all the other verses
indicating preexistence, paint a more conclusive construct to this conclusion!God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgOctober 5, 2010 at 3:39 am#218759terrariccaParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 05 2010,21:05) Hi Pierre, Matt 22:31-32 NIV
31But about the resurrection of the dead—have you not read what God said to you, 32'I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob'? He is not the God of the dead but of the living.”You didn't mention this one in your response. Is Abraham dead or alive?
mike
Mikei have answered you by saying any one who is not written in the book of live from God is dead so all in the book are alive even if they are physically death,
and we know that Abraham, Isaac, Jacob are righteous men.
and many others.
but this does not identify “”the taste of death” or is there no difference between death and taste of death ??
October 5, 2010 at 3:41 am#218760mikeboll64BlockedHey Ed,
I'm old! Can you make your print get BIGGER as you go instead of smaller? Just kidding.
The dominoes went well, although my 11 year old nephew cleaned all the old peoples clocks.
peace and love and goodnight,
mikeOctober 5, 2010 at 3:43 am#218761mikeboll64BlockedHi Pierre,
But Jesus specifically mentions the resurrection in that verse……as if to say, “The resurrection IS real, because Abraham, Isaac and Jacob are 'living'.”
mike
October 5, 2010 at 3:48 am#218762terrariccaParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 05 2010,21:03) Hi Ed, Irene and Pierre, NKJV 1 John 4:3
and every spirit that does not confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is not of God. And this is the spirit of the Antichrist, which you have heard was coming, and is now already in the world.I see what all of you are saying……..and I see I'm alone on this one.
When I read it, I think “How could JESUS come in the flesh if he wasn't JESUS before he came in the flesh?” It doesn't say “Jesus was made in the flesh”.
To me it says that someone who was already named Jesus……CAME IN THE FLESH.
It's not that important to me though. I just find it amusing sometimes how people just draw conclusions out of their own minds. People just ASSUME that our Lord didn't have the name Jesus from his beginning. How do they know this? Just because we weren't told about it?
We didn't know he was the only begotten Son of God until he said so to Nicodemus. But that doesn't mean he wasn't already the only begotten Son of God long before we knew about it, right?
The bottom line is that NO scripture says that Jesus WASN'T his name before he came in the flesh. And 1 John 4:3, while not stating it clearly, does indicate that it could be.
peace and love,
mike
MikeNKJV 1 John 4:3
and every spirit that does not confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh is not of God. And this is the spirit of the Antichrist, which you have heard was coming, and is now already in the world.i now understand were you are;i do not see it that way,you see John talks about real events here,and so it has to be understood that way;
Jesus Christ is a real person and John talks about that person
so he called him by his real name as he was known,and it was accepted that he was the son of God and came down to us in the flesh.
so anyone denying that would be a Antichrist ,because it would remove all the meaning of God anointed one.
Pierre
October 5, 2010 at 4:03 am#218767terrariccaParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 05 2010,21:43) Hi Pierre, But Jesus specifically mentions the resurrection in that verse……as if to say, “The resurrection IS real, because Abraham, Isaac and Jacob are 'living'.”
mike
Miketo make all scriptures true,this could not be,but if we say that every person that ever lived will come in judgement ,like;
Ecc 12:14 For God shall bring every work into judgment, with every secret thing, whether it be good, or whether it be evil.what i understand in what Jesus says is that those righteous men have been declare righteous during there live time.
and so there soul (spirit) were placed before the throne of God .
and yes Jesus specifically shows that there will be a resurection;but he does not say that they were resurrected.
Pierre
October 5, 2010 at 4:32 am#218774Ed JParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 05 2010,14:41) Hey Ed, I'm old! Can you make your print get BIGGER as you go instead of smaller? Just kidding.
The dominoes went well, although my 11 year old nephew cleaned all the old peoples clocks.
peace and love and goodnight,
mike
Hi Mike,Writing like this could space you out, is this OK?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgOctober 6, 2010 at 3:33 am#218944mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Ed J @ Oct. 05 2010,15:32) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Oct. 05 2010,14:41) Hey Ed, I'm old! Can you make your print get BIGGER as you go instead of smaller? Just kidding.
The dominoes went well, although my 11 year old nephew cleaned all the old peoples clocks.
peace and love and goodnight,
mike
Hi Mike,Writing like this could space you out, is this OK?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
October 6, 2010 at 3:41 am#218946mikeboll64BlockedQuote (terraricca @ Oct. 05 2010,14:48) i now understand were you are;i do not see it that way,you see John talks about real events here,and so it has to be understood that way;
Hi Pierre,I'm glad you see what I'm saying. Like I said before, it really isn't that important because is doesn't affect anything we are suppose to be doing for our God and our Lord.
I just find it strange that almost everyone just automatically assumes that our Lord didn't have the name Jesus before he came in the flesh – when the scriptures don't ever say or imply that.
peace and love,
mikeOctober 6, 2010 at 3:44 am#218948mikeboll64BlockedQuote (terraricca @ Oct. 05 2010,15:03) Mike to make all scriptures true,this could not be,
Ah, but you are the one who told us that when scriptures seem to contradict themselves, it is only our feeble understanding of them that is a fault.And this scripture clearly has Jesus proving the resurrection to the Sadducees by using the fact that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob are living.
mike
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