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- June 29, 2009 at 10:07 pm#135300bodhithartaParticipant
Quote (Christian Biker @ June 30 2009,10:02) Psalm 118:1, 4, 21, 27
O give thanks unto the LORD; for he is good: because his mercy endureth for ever.
Let them now that fear the LORD say, that his mercy endureth for ever.
I will praise thee: for thou hast heard me, and art become my salvation.
God is the LORD, which hath shewed us light: bind the sacrifice with cords, even unto the horns of the altar.Matthew 26:22
And they were exceeding sorrowful, and began every one of them to say unto him, Lord, is it I?
Mark 2:28
Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
John 20:28
And Thomas answered and said unto him, My LORD and my God.
Acts 9:5
And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus…
“lord” does not mean God if it did there would be no reason to say THE LORD GODAbraham is called lord, Moses is called lord in England every husband use to be called lord because it simply means owner or the authority have you not heard of names such as “lord byron” and such? certainly they are not calling this person God renters pay their landlord not because he is God but because he controls the land. Every King is a Lord
I hope that helps you understand
June 29, 2009 at 10:18 pm#135303PaladinParticipantQuote (TrinitarianCalvinist27 @ June 30 2009,04:32) Quote (thethinker @ June 29 2009,06:55) Paladin said: Quote God anoints men. God is not anointed.
To All,
Let's not forget that Paladin also believes that God anoints rocks. He has a problem with God anointing God but not with God anointing a rock. Hebrews 1 indeed says that God amointed God,Quote But to the Son he says, “Your throne O God is forever and ever….Therefore God, Your God has anointed You above Your fellows (Heb. 1:8-9) There it is! The Father spoke to the Son calling Him “God” and then said I have “anointed you.” Therefore, God anoints God. This is certainly more preferable than the Paladinian theory that God anoints rocks.
thinker
Amen Thinker
Messiah's equal is a MAN, not God.Psa 55:12 For it was not an enemy that reproached me; then I could have borne it: neither was it he that hated me that did magnify himself against me; then I would have hid myself from him: 13 But it was thou, a man mine equal, my guide, and mine acquaintance. 14 We took sweet counsel together, and walked unto the house of God in company.
Psalm 80:17 Let thy hand be upon the man of thy right hand, upon the son of man whom thou madest strong for thyself.
We have discussed before, God said he has no equal, neither is there any God before, after, beside, or other than himself.
God anointed resurrected Elohim. All men who are resurrected are Elohim. That does not make them God, nor equal to God.
June 29, 2009 at 10:23 pm#135305KangarooJackParticipantQuote (Lightenup @ June 30 2009,09:54) Quote (TrinitarianCalvinist27 @ June 29 2009,17:38) I already admitted that the word trinity is not is the Bible. However, you cannot show me a verse either that says the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are not parts of one God. So you are basing your beliefs off of interpretation too. So I do not want to hear that I should not interpret or use logic because you guys use it too. Another point: Jesus is referred to as the Son of God. Because the Bible says this has cause many people to believe that he cannot be the Son of God and God at the same time. However, what you all fail to see is that the Bible also says that he is the Son of Man. So does that make himself not man? NO.
Hello TC,
Welcome! You imply that since He is called “son of man” that would indicate that He is “man” and therefore since He is called “son of God” that would indicate that He is “God.” Would that be correct?Let me ask you this, is He the man that He is “of/from?” My guess is that you would see that obviously He is NOT THE man that He is “of/from.”
So, therefore, is He THE God that He is “of/from?” Again I would guess that you would see that He is obviously NOT the God that He is “of/from.”I hope you followed that
Kathi/Lightenup/LU
Kathi,
It is hard to follow because your view is indefensible. Since we are on the subject “son of man” I want to point out that Jesus was the Son of man without being literally begotten by man. He did not have a human father. Do you get my point? You cannot prove your notion that God literally begat the Son for He was the Son of man without being literally begotten by man.thinker
June 29, 2009 at 10:25 pm#135306KangarooJackParticipantQuote (Christian Biker @ June 30 2009,10:02) Psalm 118:1, 4, 21, 27
O give thanks unto the LORD; for he is good: because his mercy endureth for ever.
Let them now that fear the LORD say, that his mercy endureth for ever.
I will praise thee: for thou hast heard me, and art become my salvation.
God is the LORD, which hath shewed us light: bind the sacrifice with cords, even unto the horns of the altar.Matthew 26:22
And they were exceeding sorrowful, and began every one of them to say unto him, Lord, is it I?
Mark 2:28
Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
John 20:28
And Thomas answered and said unto him, My LORD and my God.
Acts 9:5
And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus…
CB,
Amen brother!thinker
June 29, 2009 at 10:30 pm#135311KangarooJackParticipantPaladin said:
Quote God anointed resurrected Elohim. All men who are resurrected are Elohim. That does not make them God, nor equal to God. Paladin,
To how many “resurrected Elohim” did God say this,Quote You, Lord, has from the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, And the heavens are the work of YOUR hands (vs. 10) thinker
June 29, 2009 at 10:37 pm#135313KangarooJackParticipantbodhitharta said:
Quote I keep telling you all that Hebrews 1:8-9 is not a quote from God, it was a quote from a psalms poet speaking about a King, notice Paul does not cite his source. But Jesus always cites the source of an old testament verse he will say Isaiah said or Moses said or even quote what God told Moses but Paul did not do that he simply attributed the verse to God and God did not say that. And I keep telling you that Hebrews 1:8-10 is the inspired word of God and the author to the Hebrews is clearly speaking about the Son. Therefore, his interpretation of the Psalms is infallible. But you said that the Quran says that the scriptures have been tampered with. This means that the whole Bible must bethrown out.
thinker
June 29, 2009 at 10:37 pm#135314NickHassanParticipantQuote (thethinker @ June 30 2009,10:25) Quote (Christian Biker @ June 30 2009,10:02) Psalm 118:1, 4, 21, 27
O give thanks unto the LORD; for he is good: because his mercy endureth for ever.
Let them now that fear the LORD say, that his mercy endureth for ever.
I will praise thee: for thou hast heard me, and art become my salvation.
God is the LORD, which hath shewed us light: bind the sacrifice with cords, even unto the horns of the altar.Matthew 26:22
And they were exceeding sorrowful, and began every one of them to say unto him, Lord, is it I?
Mark 2:28
Therefore the Son of man is Lord also of the sabbath.
John 20:28
And Thomas answered and said unto him, My LORD and my God.
Acts 9:5
And he said, Who art thou, Lord? And the Lord said, I am Jesus…
CB,
Amen brother!thinker
Hi CB,
Does it confuse you that YHWH was translated as LORD in the OT?You need to become one with the appointed Lord who is the head of his body.
Jesus Christ is Lord.
June 29, 2009 at 10:45 pm#135316bodhithartaParticipantQuote (thethinker @ June 30 2009,10:37) bodhitharta said: Quote I keep telling you all that Hebrews 1:8-9 is not a quote from God, it was a quote from a psalms poet speaking about a King, notice Paul does not cite his source. But Jesus always cites the source of an old testament verse he will say Isaiah said or Moses said or even quote what God told Moses but Paul did not do that he simply attributed the verse to God and God did not say that. And I keep telling you that Hebrews 1:8-10 is the inspired word of God and the author to the Hebrews is clearly speaking about the Son. Therefore, his interpretation of the Psalms is infallible. But you said that the Quran says that the scriptures have been tampered with. This means that the whole Bible must bethrown out.
thinker
If you believe the bible is infallible then you must believe Paul when he says he uses deception.Jesus doesn't use deception but Paul brags about it so according to the Bible itself Paul deceives. Don't you agree with Paul? Is Paul lying about himself?
June 29, 2009 at 10:45 pm#135317Christian BikerParticipantProverbs 28:1
The wicked flee when no man pursueth: but the righteous are bold as a lion.
Proverbs 29:1
He, that being often reproved hardeneth his neck, shall suddenly be destroyed, and that without remedy.June 29, 2009 at 10:56 pm#135322NickHassanParticipantHi CB,
You quote scripture as if it is the ultimate truth yet preach a trinity not taught anywhere in it??Is that consistent?
June 30, 2009 at 2:34 am#135329TrinitarianCalvinist27ParticipantQuote (bodhitharta @ June 29 2009,14:01) Quote (TrinitarianCalvinist27 @ June 30 2009,09:38) I already admitted that the word trinity is not is the Bible. However, you cannot show me a verse either that says the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are not parts of one God. So you are basing your beliefs off of interpretation too. So I do not want to hear that I should not interpret or use logic because you guys use it too. Another point: Jesus is referred to as the Son of God. Because the Bible says this has cause many people to believe that he cannot be the Son of God and God at the same time. However, what you all fail to see is that the Bible also says that he is the Son of Man. So does that make himself not man? NO.
You cannot prove a negative but you assert a positive therefore it should be simple if it exists.When I speak to atheists my main goal is to show them evidence conscious design even to the point of explaining to them if they themselves can consciously design something that would definitely mean that Conscious design is inherent in existence because you cannot get a resource without a source therefore the positive is the application itself of Conscious design, likewise there is no inherent need for any being to co-operate with another being to function and yet you give God this deficit of function saying He requires 3 persons to function as God, are you really greater than God that you can function within your own Sovereign will and He cannot?
Truly you try to diminish THE ALL POWERFUL perhaps even worst than an Atheist.
You offend me.June 30, 2009 at 2:59 am#135331NickHassanParticipantHi BD,
There is no divine validity in your religious writings.
Prefer the words of God.Otherwise you are standing on very unstable ground.
June 30, 2009 at 3:47 am#135336bodhithartaParticipantQuote (TrinitarianCalvinist27 @ June 30 2009,14:34) Quote (bodhitharta @ June 29 2009,14:01) Quote (TrinitarianCalvinist27 @ June 30 2009,09:38) I already admitted that the word trinity is not is the Bible. However, you cannot show me a verse either that says the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are not parts of one God. So you are basing your beliefs off of interpretation too. So I do not want to hear that I should not interpret or use logic because you guys use it too. Another point: Jesus is referred to as the Son of God. Because the Bible says this has cause many people to believe that he cannot be the Son of God and God at the same time. However, what you all fail to see is that the Bible also says that he is the Son of Man. So does that make himself not man? NO.
You cannot prove a negative but you assert a positive therefore it should be simple if it exists.When I speak to atheists my main goal is to show them evidence conscious design even to the point of explaining to them if they themselves can consciously design something that would definitely mean that Conscious design is inherent in existence because you cannot get a resource without a source therefore the positive is the application itself of Conscious design, likewise there is no inherent need for any being to co-operate with another being to function and yet you give God this deficit of function saying He requires 3 persons to function as God, are you really greater than God that you can function within your own Sovereign will and He cannot?
Truly you try to diminish THE ALL POWERFUL perhaps even worst than an Atheist.
You offend me.
Christ must offend you as well because he never believed in a trinity. In all his teachings never once did he say anyone or anything else was God except his Father, but I guess many know more about Christ than Christ himself, right?There is a grave and terrible evil that doesn't believe the words of Jesus because of the doctrines of devil and men.
June 30, 2009 at 3:49 am#135337NickHassanParticipantHi BD,
You condemn yourself then by your words as you find fault with the teachings of Jesus and say they need correction.June 30, 2009 at 4:09 am#135342LightenupParticipantQuote (thethinker @ June 29 2009,18:23) Quote (Lightenup @ June 30 2009,09:54) Quote (TrinitarianCalvinist27 @ June 29 2009,17:38) I already admitted that the word trinity is not is the Bible. However, you cannot show me a verse either that says the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are not parts of one God. So you are basing your beliefs off of interpretation too. So I do not want to hear that I should not interpret or use logic because you guys use it too. Another point: Jesus is referred to as the Son of God. Because the Bible says this has cause many people to believe that he cannot be the Son of God and God at the same time. However, what you all fail to see is that the Bible also says that he is the Son of Man. So does that make himself not man? NO.
Hello TC,
Welcome! You imply that since He is called “son of man” that would indicate that He is “man” and therefore since He is called “son of God” that would indicate that He is “God.” Would that be correct?Let me ask you this, is He the man that He is “of/from?” My guess is that you would see that obviously He is NOT THE man that He is “of/from.”
So, therefore, is He THE God that He is “of/from?” Again I would guess that you would see that He is obviously NOT the God that He is “of/from.”I hope you followed that
Kathi/Lightenup/LU
Kathi,
It is hard to follow because your view is indefensible. Since we are on the subject “son of man” I want to point out that Jesus was the Son of man without being literally begotten by man. He did not have a human father. Do you get my point? You cannot prove your notion that God literally begat the Son for He was the Son of man without being literally begotten by man.thinker
Thinker,
I just want to point out that Jesus was literally begotten of “man.” The Greek for “man” here is Strong's #444 anthropos:NT:444
a&nqrwpo$
anthropos (anth'-ro-pos); from NT:435 and ops (the countenance; from NT:3700); man-faced, i.e. a human beingSo, unless Mary was from another planet, she who had begotten Him was a human being. Therefore Jesus was literally begotten of a human being which is often translated as “flesh and blood” or “man” including man and woman. He was literally begotten of “man” and her name was Mary.
Blessings,
KathiJune 30, 2009 at 4:18 am#135343bodhithartaParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ June 30 2009,15:49) Hi BD,
You condemn yourself then by your words as you find fault with the teachings of Jesus and say they need correction.
Me and you both believe what Jesus has said so why do you turn your back on me to run with what you call “The Whore”?June 30, 2009 at 4:21 am#135345NickHassanParticipantHi BD,
Not believing what strangers offer makes us faithful to God not unfaithful.
WE are the people of the book but you have another god and another book.June 30, 2009 at 5:32 am#135349bodhithartaParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ June 30 2009,16:21) Hi BD,
Not believing what strangers offer makes us faithful to God not unfaithful.
WE are the people of the book but you have another god and another book.
(2) And when there came to them an apostle from Allah, confirming what was with them, a party of the people of the book threw away the book of Allah behind their backs, as if (it had been something) they did not know!
( سورة البقرة , Al-Baqara, Chapter #2, Verse #101)(7) the people of the book know this as they know their own sons; but some of them conceal the truth which they themselves know.
( سورة البقرة , Al-Baqara, Chapter #2, Verse #146)(13) Say: “O people of the book! come to common terms as between us and you: That we worship none but Allah. that we associate no partners with him; that we erect not, from among ourselves, Lords and patrons other than Allah.” If then they turn back, say ye: “Bear witness that we (at least) are Muslims (bowing to Allah.s Will).
( سورة آل عمران , Aal-e-Imran, Chapter #3, Verse #64)(14) Ye people of the book! Why dispute ye about Abraham, when the Law and the Gospel Were not revealed Till after him? Have ye no understanding?
( سورة آل عمران , Aal-e-Imran, Chapter #3, Verse #65)(20) It is not (possible) that a man, to whom is given the book, and Wisdom, and the prophetic office, should say to people: “Be ye my worshippers rather than Allah.s”: on the contrary (He would say) “Be ye worshippers of Him Who is truly the Cherisher of all: For ye have taught the book and ye have studied it earnestly.”
( سورة آل عمران , Aal-e-Imran, Chapter #3, Verse #79)June 30, 2009 at 7:03 am#135356NickHassanParticipantHi Bd,
Are these your favourite philosophies?
Dry stuff.June 30, 2009 at 7:16 am#135361KangarooJackParticipantLightenup said:
Quote Thinker,
I just want to point out that Jesus was literally begotten of “man.” The Greek for “man” here is Strong's #444 anthropos:NT:444
a&nqrwpo$
anthropos (anth'-ro-pos); from NT:435 and ops (the countenance; from NT:3700); man-faced, i.e. a human beingSo, unless Mary was from another planet, she who had begotten Him was a human being. Therefore Jesus was literally begotten of a human being which is often translated as “flesh and blood” or “man” including man and woman. He was literally begotten of “man” and her name was Mary.
Kathi,
Apparently you did not carefully read what I said. Jesus did not have a human father. Therefore, He was not literally begotten by man. His flesh was begotten by the Holy Spirit. He said that the Son of Man came down from heaven (John 3:13). Therefore, the Son of man was pre-existent and could not have been begotten by man. The terms “Son of Man and “Son of God” refer to His office and not His being.thinker
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