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- June 26, 2010 at 5:37 am#200036OxyParticipant
Quote (Ed J @ June 26 2010,18:25) Hi Oxy, It's funny that the Post above yours has the answer you ask.
I see this pattern all the time, people ask the question that had just been answered!But because you either don't understand it or refuse to believe (Click Here)
Has the answer I ask? I'm not understanding you. That does not make sense, sorry.June 26, 2010 at 5:39 am#200037Ed JParticipantJune 26, 2010 at 5:45 am#200040OxyParticipantI went to the link, but am unsure what you were referring to.
June 27, 2010 at 10:43 pm#200369RokkaManParticipantSorry ED J
OXY is scripturally correct.The Word of God was manifested as Jesus Christ the man.
The Word of God is also known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.Therefore, by simple logic.
God manifested in flesh as Jesus Christ.
June 27, 2010 at 10:53 pm#200378NickHassanParticipantHi RM,
Logic is not much help.
God was in Christ[2Cor5]June 27, 2010 at 10:55 pm#200380RokkaManParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ June 28 2010,09:53) Hi RM,
Logic is not much help.
God was in Christ[2Cor5]
One verse doesn't cut it Nick….there are floods of verses contrary to your one verse.This is why many other religions say christianity contradicts itself.
Can you reconcile the contradictions Nick?
because I can.
Through the wisdom God has given me.
But can you?
I'm still waiting to hear your response of 1 tim 3:16
June 27, 2010 at 10:56 pm#200383NickHassanParticipantHi RM,
Wisdom is not confusion.June 27, 2010 at 10:57 pm#200385NickHassanParticipantHi RM,
Wisdom is justified by her children.
Confusion is not one of themJune 27, 2010 at 11:00 pm#200389RokkaManParticipantQuote (Nick Hassan @ June 28 2010,09:57) Hi RM,
Wisdom is justified by her children.
Confusion is not one of them
I am not confusedJune 28, 2010 at 7:01 am#200520Ed JParticipantQuote (RokkaMan @ June 28 2010,09:43) Sorry ED J
OXY is scripturally correct.The Word of God was manifested ( ( (as) ) ) Jesus Christ the man.
The Word of God is also known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.Therefore, by simple logic.
God manifested in flesh as Jesus Christ.
Hi RokkaMan,You should be sorry for making mistakes!
1) Corrected wording: The Word of God was manifested [ [ [IN] ] ] Jesus Christ the man. (2 Cor. 5:19)
2) The HolySpirit; yes: The Word of God (HolySpirit) is known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.June 29, 2010 at 3:30 pm#200744RokkaManParticipantQuote (Ed J @ June 28 2010,18:01) Quote (RokkaMan @ June 28 2010,09:43) Sorry ED J
OXY is scripturally correct.The Word of God was manifested ( ( (as) ) ) Jesus Christ the man.
The Word of God is also known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.Therefore, by simple logic.
God manifested in flesh as Jesus Christ.
Hi RokkaMan,You should be sorry for making mistakes!
1) Corrected wording: The Word of God was manifested [ [ [IN] ] ] Jesus Christ the man. (2 Cor. 5:19)
2) The HolySpirit; yes: The Word of God (HolySpirit) is known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.
Do you realize in 2 cor 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.The himself is referring to God?
Reconciling the world unto himself, was reconciling the world to God.
Do you understanding the implications of that verse?
——-Not to mention, when a spirit is manifested it always is manifested IN the manifestation…even when you say it was manifested AS.
For example…
If you want happiness, and you manifest happiness as going to the park.
It is evident that the park itself is not happiness but the happiness you manifested is IN the activity of going to the park.
Like wise, if I say God manifested as flesh…it is suppose to be understood that he was IN his manifestation.
The same way when he manifested as The Angel of The Lord…he was IN The Angel.
This however did not stop anyone in the OT from recognizing the manifestation as God himself.
In the same way we should recognize Jesus as God himself manifested as a Son. In which YHVH was IN his manifestation.
Why is it so hard to understand?
June 29, 2010 at 3:32 pm#200745RokkaManParticipantThis goes back to my point that God is everything but everything is not God.
God is The Angel of The Lord (manifested as)
but
The Angel of The Lord is not God.God is Jesus Christ (manifested as)
but
Jesus Christ is not God.——-
So if I say, Jesus Christ is God in flesh…that is accurate.
If I say Jesus Christ is God (as in YHVH himself)…that is not accurate.June 29, 2010 at 6:36 pm#200765NickHassanParticipantHi RM,
Jesus was not just a body for God.
He lived.June 29, 2010 at 8:35 pm#200815Ed JParticipantQuote (RokkaMan @ June 30 2010,02:30) Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2010,18:01) Quote (RokkaMan @ June 28 2010,09:43) Sorry ED J
OXY is scripturally correct.The Word of God was manifested ( ( (as) ) ) Jesus Christ the man.
The Word of God is also known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.Therefore, by simple logic.
God manifested in flesh as Jesus Christ.
Hi RokkaMan,You should be sorry for making mistakes!
1) Corrected wording: The Word of God was manifested [ [ [IN] ] ] Jesus Christ the man. (2 Cor. 5:19)
2) The HolySpirit; yes: The Word of God (HolySpirit) is known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.
Do you realize in 2 cor 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.The himself is referring to God?
Reconciling the world unto himself, was reconciling the world to God.
Do you understanding the implications of that verse?
——-
Hi RokkaMan,Yes, the himself IS referring to God!
Yes, I do understand the implications of the verse,
but perhaps the 'systems of religion' have confused 'you'?The systems of religion and traditions of men communicate…
distortions of truth, confusion of mind, and distractions of spirit.July 2, 2010 at 9:39 pm#201384RokkaManParticipantQuote (Ed J @ June 30 2010,07:35) Quote (RokkaMan @ June 30 2010,02:30) Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2010,18:01) Quote (RokkaMan @ June 28 2010,09:43) Sorry ED J
OXY is scripturally correct.The Word of God was manifested ( ( (as) ) ) Jesus Christ the man.
The Word of God is also known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.Therefore, by simple logic.
God manifested in flesh as Jesus Christ.
Hi RokkaMan,You should be sorry for making mistakes!
1) Corrected wording: The Word of God was manifested [ [ [IN] ] ] Jesus Christ the man. (2 Cor. 5:19)
2) The HolySpirit; yes: The Word of God (HolySpirit) is known to be God himself both in the OT AND NT.
Do you realize in 2 cor 5:19
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.The himself is referring to God?
Reconciling the world unto himself, was reconciling the world to God.
Do you understanding the implications of that verse?
——-
Hi RokkaMan,Yes, the himself IS referring to God!
Yes, I do understand the implications of the verse,
but perhaps the 'systems of religion' have confused 'you'?The systems of religion and traditions of men communicate…
distortions of truth, confusion of mind, and distractions of spirit.
If God was In christ reconciling the world to himself in the death of christ it fits perfectly that Christ is a manifestation of God himself according to 1 timothy 3:16 and the many other verse that give Jesus Christ a Godly divinity.July 2, 2010 at 9:50 pm#201387942767ParticipantHi RM:
You say:
Quote God is Jesus Christ (manifested as) Manifest through, not manifest as.
God has spoken to us by His Son, who is the express image of his person. (Hebrews 1)
Love in Christ,
MartyJuly 2, 2010 at 10:09 pm#201392RokkaManParticipantQuote (942767 @ July 03 2010,08:50) Hi RM: You say:
Quote God is Jesus Christ (manifested as) Manifest through, not manifest as.
God has spoken to us by His Son, who is the express image of his person. (Hebrews 1)
Love in Christ,
Marty
It still means the same thing.if I said God became Jesus Christ, then no that is wrong.
But to manifest means: readily perceived by the eye or the understanding; evident; obvious; apparent; plain
——-
So it doesn't matter if I say YHVH manifested In, as, or through
It all still means that YHVH was in Jesus Christ.
The implications however is unto the likes of “The Angel of The Lord”
That is what I won't let you take away from Jesus Christ.
His manifestation is equivelant to The Angel of the Lord…
The only difference is that he wasn't an Angel he was a Man… this is how mankind was reconciled BACK to YHVH.
Because YHVH experienced life as a man, and conquered it with love and sacrifice on the cross.
July 2, 2010 at 10:11 pm#201393RokkaManParticipantIn otherwords, God was ACTUALLY TRULLY perceived by mankind, in the person of Jesus Christ.
The express image.
The fullness of the Godhead.
The spirit of eternal life and love found in obedience.
——-
Does that make Jesus YHVH himself?
Absolutely not.
but Jesus was not created in creation. He was not created from fire like the angels.
He actually CAME from YHVH himself.
He was begotten, in spirit…and was later manifested in flesh.
He is the Son of The ever-living God.
July 2, 2010 at 10:32 pm#201395942767ParticipantHi RM:
I believe that I can go along with you on this last post, except for the following:
You say:
Quote He was begotten, in spirit…and was later manifested in flesh. Begotten in the spirit? What does that mean?
Love in Christ,
MartyJuly 2, 2010 at 10:36 pm#201397RokkaManParticipantQuote (942767 @ July 03 2010,09:32) Hi RM: I believe that I can go along with you on this last post, except for the following:
You say:
Quote He was begotten, in spirit…and was later manifested in flesh. Begotten in the spirit? What does that mean?
Love in Christ,
Marty
God is a spirit, if he begets…his offspring so too will be spirit.We know that spirit to be The Word of God.
That spirit was later humbled and manifested as flesh, to whom we know as Jesus Christ.
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