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- June 5, 2015 at 7:04 am#798901kerwinParticipant
AndrewAd,
Jesus was a man but also a god as being a divine son,so the point of following him as being a man has no bearing on following him at all. And if ye follow him today ye follow not that physical Christ but rather that spirit being of Paul.For we can no longer know a fleshly Christ.
You already know that human being become sons of God by receiving the Spirit of God. It is these sons Peter teaches us “might be partakers of the divine nature”. (2 Peter 1:4). There is no literal mention of Jesus Christ having divine nature but since his fruits are evidence he has always lived by the Spirit it is evident he has always had the divine nature.
There is no evidence that Jesus was anything but the Author, aka Pioneer, of the new covenant. He also is the finisher of our faith. (Hebrews 12:2)
June 5, 2015 at 7:08 am#798902NickHassanParticipantHi umb5,
Why would you assume it was only ORDINARY ANGELS?
1Thess 4.16
“For the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a shout.
with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God,
and the dead in Christ will rise first”
If you think that this states that Jesus Christ is an archangel you would also have to say he was a trumpet of God as well.
He comes WITH both .
Why would he only come with the VOICE of an archangel if he was one?
Again you would need the help of supporting scriptures to prove such a claim.[2cor 13.1]
One verse theology is unproveable.
June 5, 2015 at 7:14 am#798905NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
It is not the receiving of the Spirit of God that makes men sons of God.
Many are stillborn.
The sons of God are LED BY the Spirit of God.
June 5, 2015 at 7:17 am#798906NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
What spiritual fruits from the list in Gal5 .23 were recorded as having been manifested by Jesus before he was anointed as the Christ at the Jordan?
June 5, 2015 at 7:19 am#798907NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
Receiving Jesus Christ only gives men the POWER TO BECOME children of God
Jn 1.12
June 5, 2015 at 7:26 am#798908kerwinParticipantUMB5,
Your doctrine is made up as nowhere in Scripture is Jesus literally said to be anything other than a human being. The teaching you adhere to looks for ambiguities in words in order to support its claims.
Scripture teaches us there is one human being the mediates between God and humanity and he is Jesus Christ who gave his life for humanity.
The rhetorical question of “what angel…” is ambiguous to the extent that you can say a particular angel fits the qualification or no angel fits it. There is no reason for the rhetorical question if a particular angel fits the qualification.
In addition it is written “let all the angels of God worship him” and that the world to come is not subjected to angels (Hebrews 2:5).
There are at least two points that the book of Hebrews makes and they are that Jesus Christ is not an angel and that he is a human being because humanity can only be saved through a human being.
June 5, 2015 at 7:30 am#798909kerwinParticipantNick,
My post is based on the words of Galatians 4:6 and Romans 8:15 and I did not work out the details. I do know if you choose to live by the flesh you will not enter the reign of God.
June 5, 2015 at 7:35 am#798910kerwinParticipantNick,
All of them as Jesus revealed his knowledge in the Temple at the age of 12 and so no heresy was found in him.
Even before John baptized him, John testified that Jesus should baptize him instead as there was no need for Jesus to be immersed for the repentance of his sins.
June 5, 2015 at 8:24 am#798913NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
So where are all these spiritual gifts shown when he did not preach heresy?
Is not preaching heresy said to be a fruit of the Spirit in gal 5?
Jesus was sinless because he perfectly obeyed the Law and thereby also validated it
June 5, 2015 at 9:09 am#798915kerwinParticipantNick,
Paul claimed his obedience of the Law was without fault. (Philippians 3:6)
June 5, 2015 at 9:11 am#798917NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
Indeed he claimed he HAD BEEN a perfect Pharisee.
Do you think that was still his aim in life after he met Jesus Christ?
June 5, 2015 at 9:18 am#798919kerwinParticipantNick,
It is easy to be found faultless under the law since it is written “There is none righteous, no, not one” and God provided a way for them to be credited with righteousness. The new covenant is superior.
June 5, 2015 at 9:22 am#798920NickHassanParticipantHi KW,
Is the old covenant not close to being obsolete?
Since you claim you have submitted to it but not to the LAW what relevance does it have for you?
June 5, 2015 at 2:20 pm#798942NickHassanParticipantHi,
2Tim 20
“Now in a large house there are not only gold and silver vessels, but also vessels of wood and of earthenware, and some to honor and some to dishonour”
Who or what are these vessels?
Paul said we carry this treasure in EARTHEN vessels.2 cor
June 5, 2015 at 2:27 pm#798943NickHassanParticipantHi,
If all men are earthen vessels it may give some insights about angelic beings.
? archangels, angels and spirits
June 5, 2015 at 2:56 pm#798944NickHassanParticipantHi,
And are the 24 ELDERS in revelation the angelic sons/archangels?
June 5, 2015 at 3:25 pm#798945NickHassanParticipantHi,
Of course there are Seraphim and the fascinating Cherubim [ez 1-10] to fit in.
June 5, 2015 at 3:56 pm#798946NickHassanParticipantHi,
So if man is earthenware then there are three levels we know of above them, and none are singular.
Some of gold
Some of silver
Some of wood.
June 5, 2015 at 3:56 pm#798947NickHassanParticipantHi,
Thanks to Jesus Christ MAN has gone above all those other levels.
June 5, 2015 at 4:08 pm#798948Ed JParticipant“(1a)For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee?
And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? And again, when he bringeth in
the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.” (Heb.1:5-6)
.
“(1b}But to which of the angels said he at any time,
Sit on my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool?” (Heb.1:13)
.
Both of these questions are are rhetorical – meaning to NONE of the Angels.(1)How do we know they are rehetorical? It seems at looking at the other scriptures above it, its meaning None of the other Angels, because verses 3-4 show that the position given to him by his father, is what made him superior to the angels, just as superior of a name he was given. (2)It seems that he is just being distinguished from ordinary angels. Could you help me understand why you say these questions are rhetorical? Also, (3)could you give me your thoughts on 1st Thessalonians 4:16?
Hi UMB5,
Sorry, I didn’t realize this post (posted on the bottom of page 4) was geared toward me,
because you did not include the bible references, nor did you identify me as “Ed J”
Dialog is good, so is you asking questions that will help establish the truth.1) How do we know these questions are rhetorical?
1a) by the words “at any time”
1b) by the words “at any time”(2) Sure, because the words in Heb.2-5 (the situation becomes clear that Jesus was never an Angel at any time)
If Jesus were an Angel (at any time), then there is a contradiction between verse 5 and verse 8.”For unto the angels HATH HE NOT put in subjection the world to come, whereof we speak.” (Heb 2:5)
“Thou(JEHOVAH of Armies) hast put all things in subjection under his feet.
For in that he(JEHOVAH) put all in subjection under him(Jesus Christ),
he left nothing that is not put under him.” (Hebrews 2:8)3) I will address 1Thess.4:16 in my next post
___________
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org _______________________________________________________________________________________________________
”Call unto me, and I will answer thee, and show thee great and mighty things, which thou knowest not.” – JEHOVAH GOD - AuthorPosts
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