JEHOVAH

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  • #122044
    942767
    Participant

    Quote (david @ Feb. 17 2009,16:25)

    Quote (942767 @ Feb. 17 2009,14:28)
    Hi:

    David indicated:

    God's name has meaning—“he causes to become.”

    Quote

    Joe 2:32 And it shall come to pass, [that] whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call

    “Whosoever shall call upon the name of the LORD” = Yeshua = Jehovah is Salvation

    Love in Christ,
    Marty


    Um, no 94, just wrong.  No question. I'm sorry, but wrong.

    “lord” in that verse is not Yeshua (Jesus.)  

    It is unquestionably referring to The Father.  The tetragrammaton is there, (God's name), not Yeshua.

    This is why so many people believe in the trinity.  It gets confusing when you take God's name out.


    Hi David:

    I know that the tetragrammation was there in the verse of scripture in Joel, but what I am suggesting is “calling on the name” has to do with calling on God's character, and the name Yeshua means YHWH is salvation. Yeshua is God's representative sent by HIm to humanity for the purpose of the salvation of whosoever shall call upon his name.

    Love in Christ,
    Marty

    #122045
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi,
    Who are those who call on the name?

    Acts 9:14
    And here he hath authority from the chief priests to bind all that call on thy name.

    Acts 9:21
    But all that heard him were amazed, and said; Is not this he that destroyed them which called on this name in Jerusalem, and came hither for that intent, that he might bring them bound unto the chief priests?

    Acts 15:17
    That the residue of men might seek after the Lord, and all the Gentiles, upon whom my name is called, saith the Lord, who doeth all these things.

    Acts 22:16
    And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

    1 Corinthians 1:2
    Unto the church of God which is at Corinth, to them that are sanctified in Christ Jesus, called to be saints, with all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord, both their's and our's:

    Are they not those who are joined with the Lord?

    #122233
    dirtyknections
    Participant

    JW's teach that Jesus used the divine name in prayer and in everyday use…

    David please show 1…just 1 scripture where Jesus uses the divine name in prayer..or period for that matter…

    JW's add the name in places where it is not originally because they put undue emphasis on the USE of the name..instead of WHAT and WHO the “name” represents…its just another attempt to say, “Look!!! we do something that NO ONE else does..so we must have the truth”…

    David and others…please remember that a “Name” when referencing hebrew beliefs meant more to the hebrews than just a combination of letters that forms a word that is then give as a name to a person…

    To the Hebrews..a “the name” represented WHO and what that person was…namely their QUALITIES and other Identifying things that showed who the “person behind” the name was…this is exactly why god referenced himself as “I am what I am” in exodus….

    And conversely why…In the “model prayer” Jesus said to “pray this way…OUR FATHER”

    The reason he used the word “Father” is because that showed WHO YHWH WAS TO US…it showed the relationship of the person behind the name to his servants…

    Also it was not necessary for Jesus and his apostles to use the name on a regular basis as if people did not already KNOW who they..specifically “Jesus” referenced as his “FATHER”

    JW's make it seem like Jesus used the name so that people would know who his Father was and whose name he was sanctifying….Everyone who encountered Jesus KNEW that he claimed to be the “Messiah” who was also the “Son of Man” and conversely the “Son of God”…

    Couple that with the FACT that the divine name was WIDELY known and USED…then it would be not necessary for Jesus to constantly use the divine name…like JW's want people to think he did…sure Jesus MAY have used it…but their is no BIBLICAL record that he did….and conversely…the bible tells us clearly that the most IMPORTANT name to US..is JESUS' name…

    Remember there is no other name on earth or under heaven with which one can be “Saved”…

    #122236
    NickHassan
    Participant

    Hi DK,
    “Father” seems more likely.
    It is written

    #122247

    david,

    thanks for the reply, wonder we stray from using Immanuel as written in Matthew?

    much love.

    #122248
    dirtyknections
    Participant

    Quote (Nick Hassan @ Feb. 21 2009,05:06)
    Hi DK,
    “Father” seems more likely.
    It is written


    :)

    amen

    #122419
    david
    Participant

    Quote
    Hi DK,
    “Father” seems more likely.
    It is written

    More likely than what?

    He is called by the word  “God” about TWICE as many times in the NT as he is called “Father” in the NT.

    In the Gospels, “God” and “Father” occur about the same number of times.

    Of course Jesus called his God and Father “Father” when intimately praying to him.  It is a term of enderment.  It shows the closeness that he (and we should) had with Jehovah, his Father.

    But, the apostles, the Bible writers, of the NT used “God” twice as much as “Father” for some reason.

    Here's why:  He is not only our Father.  He is also our God.  Were the ones who were inspired By God to write the Bible wrong in doing this?  No, is the obvious answer.

    But he is more than our Father and more than our God.  He is “the God,” the one who causes to become and can cause anything to become.  He is the Almighty God, and his name gives and shows meaning to that effect.

    *PERHAPS THAT IS WHY, HIS PERSONAL NAME OCCURS MORE TIMES IN THE BIBLE THAN “GOD” “FATHER” “CREATOR” “LORD” “ALMGIHTY” AND ALL OF HIS TITLES COMBINED!!!
    (*Uncontested statement of fact.)

    Today, we don't have the original NT manuscripts.  We have manuscripts that are a couple hundred years after the originals if I remember correctly.  (Someone will correct me if I'm wrong.)

    But, the Hebrew scriptures were written on different materials that lasted longer.  And so, while the tetragramaton was removed from the Hebrew scriptures (and most certainly the Greek scriptures [NT] as well), we only know for certainty about the Hebrew scriptures [OT].  

    And if the NT was ANYTHING like the old testement….if it was inspired of the same God, with the same purpose, it seems impossible that God's name would not be contained in the NT a whole lot.  

    david.

    Here's all we know:

    1. The divine name was in the OT thousands and thousands of times, and removed.  
    2. It was almost definitely in the NT, and also removed.  
    3. At the very least, where the NT writers quote from the OT, we should expect that they would not remove God's name.

    And here's a 4th:

    If God had an arch enemy, would he want God's name removed from the face of the earth?
    Would he use people who are self proclaimed enemies of the Bible to fight his war?

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