ISM Scale

[Ed J]

Quote (t8 @ July 21 2013,10:21)

Quote (Ed J @ July 06 2013,02:57) Quote (t8 @ July 05 2013,10:24) Quote (Ed J @ July 01 2013,14:21) Hi T8, What does one have to do with the other? God bless Ed J That God used King James to create the only accurate Bible in existence was also a man who engaged in witch hunts and had this bible written in English only. I don't buy your hypothesis for one minute. Hi T8, You are free to believe whatever you want my friend. YHVH also used “David” – who took another man's wife and then had him killed. “But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise;  and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty;  And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not,  to bring to nought things that are: That no flesh should glory in his presence.” (1 Cor 1:27-29) Your brother     in Christ, Jesus. Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org So that is your scriptural proof that King James commissioned the only accurate translation of the Bible and it came in one language. I could equally prove that the NIV is the only true translation because that sounds foolish too. There is a difference between what appears as foolish to men Ed J and what actually is foolish.

Hi T8,

                       You saying it and it lining up with Scripture are two different things.

Psalm 12:6-7 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.

                       1. The Greek Septuagint Bible
                       2. The Latin Vulgate Bible
                       3. The Wycliffe Bible (first English)
                       4. The Tyndale New Testament
                       5. The Great Bible
                       6. The Geneva Bible
                       7. The Bishops Bible

Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them (in the AKJV Bible) from this generation for ever.
Isaiah 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue(that is English) will he speak to this people.

                                                        “AKJV Bible”

1Cor.14:27 (AKJV) If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two(Hebrew, Aramaic),
or at the most by three(Greek), and that by course; [and let one (“AKJV Bible”) translate].
The “AKJV Bible” we have today was no accident, it is exactly the way YHVH wanted it!

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[terraricca]

Quote (Ed J @ July 21 2013,12:43)

Quote (t8 @ July 21 2013,10:21) Quote (Ed J @ July 06 2013,02:57) Quote (t8 @ July 05 2013,10:24) Quote (Ed J @ July 01 2013,14:21) Hi T8, What does one have to do with the other? God bless Ed J That God used King James to create the only accurate Bible in existence was also a man who engaged in witch hunts and had this bible written in English only. I don't buy your hypothesis for one minute. Hi T8, You are free to believe whatever you want my friend. YHVH also used “David” – who took another man's wife and then had him killed. “But God hath chosen the foolish things of the world to confound the wise;  and God hath chosen the weak things of the world to confound the things which are mighty;  And base things of the world, and things which are despised, hath God chosen, yea, and things which are not,  to bring to nought things that are: That no flesh should glory in his presence.” (1 Cor 1:27-29) Your brother     in Christ, Jesus. Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org So that is your scriptural proof that King James commissioned the only accurate translation of the Bible and it came in one language. I could equally prove that the NIV is the only true translation because that sounds foolish too. There is a difference between what appears as foolish to men Ed J and what actually is foolish. Hi T8,                        You saying it and it lining up with Scripture are two different things. Psalm 12:6-7 The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth, purified seven times.                        1. The Greek Septuagint Bible                        2. The Latin Vulgate Bible                        3. The Wycliffe Bible (first English)                        4. The Tyndale New Testament                        5. The Great Bible                        6. The Geneva Bible                        7. The Bishops Bible Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt preserve them (in the AKJV Bible) from this generation for ever. Isaiah 28:11 For with stammering lips and another tongue(that is English) will he speak to this people.                                                         “AKJV Bible” 1Cor.14:27 (AKJV) If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two(Hebrew, Aramaic), or at the most by three(Greek), and that by course; [and let one (“AKJV Bible”) translate]. The “AKJV Bible” we have today was no accident, it is exactly the way YHVH wanted it! God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

edj

1Co 14:26 What then shall we say, brothers? When you come together, everyone has a hymn, or a word of instruction, a revelation, a tongue or an interpretation. All of these must be done for the strengthening of the church.
1Co 14:27 If anyone speaks in a tongue, two—or at the most three—should speak, one at a time, and someone must interpret.
1Co 14:28 If there is no interpreter, the speaker should keep quiet in the church and speak to himself and God.

your interpretation of scriptures is strange to say the least ,it seems self fulfilling to me would not say it

[Ed J]

Hi Pierre,

There are many verses in the bible that have more than one meaning.

Take for example Psalm 22, it is how David felt about himself,
but it is also a Prophetic reference to Jesus dying on the cross.

And in like manor 1Cor.14:27, the Apostle Paul(Shaool) was speaking
about conduct in the church, *AND* also Prophetically about the “AKJV Bible”.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 21 2013,04:43)

Quote (Ed J @ July 18 2013,03:38) Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 18 2013,09:57) 3.  Then perhaps it's FINALLY time you tell me YOUR definition of “god”. Creator and ruler of the universe Then the phrase “god OF gods” means “creator and ruler of the universe OF the creators and rulers of the universe?

Hi Mike,

You should understand it to mean “LEADER of Leaders”.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 21 2013,04:43)

Is Jehovah the MOST HIGH “creator and ruler of the universe” – as if there are other creators and rulers of the universe?

huh?

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 21 2013,04:43)

Ed, I have always assumed that you and many others truly believe the word “god” means “creator of the universe”.  Long before you admitted this belief, I have repeatedly told people that the reason they don't fully understand the many gods in the scriptures is because they INACCURATELY believe that “god” actually means “creator of the universe”.

Hi Mike,

“GOD” most certainly DOES MEAN “Creator and ruler of the universe”.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 21 2013,04:43)

There is no use of “elohim” or “theos” in any scripture that automatically implies “creator of the universe”.

Hi Mike,

Trying to back-translate is where the problem comes in.

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[terraricca]

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,07:41)

Hi Pierre, There are many verses in the bible that have more than one meaning. Take for example Psalm 22, it is how David felt about himself, but it is also a Prophetic reference to Jesus dying on the cross. And in like manor 1Cor.14:27, the Apostle Paul(Shaool) was speaking about conduct in the church, *AND* also Prophetically about the “AKJV Bible”. God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

edj

this is your opinion their is no connection to the KJV the King James made that version out and for a self fulfilling ego and interest ,sins I believe he accepted Protestantism for his kingdom,and rejected Catholicism ,

[Ed J]

Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 21 2013,04:43)

Quote (Ed J @ July 18 2013,03:38) Quote (mikeboll64 @ July 18 2013,09:57) I agree with Webster:  Any of various beings conceived of as supernatural, immortal, and having special powers over the lives and affairs of people and the course of nature. That would be an idol or a false god. (1)Why would a being who has “special powers over the lives and affairs of people and the course of nature” be considered a “false god”?  (2)If Satan commanded powerful winds, fire from heaven, and directed human beings to harm Job's family – how exactly is he a “FALSE god”?

Hi Mike,

1) The Bible call them 'idols':
“For all the gods of the nations are idols: but the LORD made the heavens.” (Psalms 96:5)

2) He is no-god to me, is a God to you?

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[Ed J]

Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,12:58)

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,07:41) Hi Pierre, There are many verses in the bible that have more than one meaning. Take for example Psalm 22, it is how David felt about himself, but it is also a Prophetic reference to Jesus dying on the cross. And in like manor 1Cor.14:27, the Apostle Paul(Shaool) was speaking about conduct in the church, *AND* also Prophetically about the “AKJV Bible”. God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org edj this is your opinion their is no connection to the KJV the King James made that version out and for a self fulfilling ego and interest ,sins I believe he accepted Protestantism for his kingdom,and rejected Catholicism ,

Hi Pierre,

I have no 'ego' – I killed it long ago.

[terraricca]

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,08:07)

Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,12:58) Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,07:41) Hi Pierre, There are many verses in the bible that have more than one meaning. Take for example Psalm 22, it is how David felt about himself, but it is also a Prophetic reference to Jesus dying on the cross. And in like manor 1Cor.14:27, the Apostle Paul(Shaool) was speaking about conduct in the church, *AND* also Prophetically about the “AKJV Bible”. God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org edj this is your opinion their is no connection to the KJV the King James made that version out and for a self fulfilling ego and interest ,sins I believe he accepted Protestantism for his kingdom,and rejected Catholicism , Hi Pierre, I have no 'ego' – I killed it long ago.

edj

I was not taliking about your ego but King James

[Ed J]

Quote (t8 @ July 21 2013,10:21)

So that is your scriptural proof that King James commissioned the only accurate translation of the Bible and it came in one language. I could equally prove that the NIV is the only true translation because that sounds foolish too. There is a difference between what appears as foolish to men Ed J and what actually is foolish.

Hi T8,

(NIV Perversion) Then God said, “Take your son, your only son, whom you love–Isaac–and go to the region
of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you.”
            (According to the N.I.V. Did Abraham disobey God Or did God lie?)

If you want to discuss the “AKJV Bible” – here's the link… (Link) 

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[terraricca]

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,09:16)

Quote (t8 @ July 21 2013,10:21) So that is your scriptural proof that King James commissioned the only accurate translation of the Bible and it came in one language. I could equally prove that the NIV is the only true translation because that sounds foolish too. There is a difference between what appears as foolish to men Ed J and what actually is foolish. Hi T8, (NIV Perversion) Then God said, “Take your son, your only son, whom you love–Isaac–and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you.”             (According to the N.I.V. Did Abraham disobey God Or did God lie?) If you want to discuss the “AKJV Bible” – here's the link… (Link)  God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

edj

your a speculator,not a true man of truth ,if you where one you would show the KJV side by side with the NIV and show the difference and how it is so in error ,but you did not do that why if you think I have the time to look at a 2.5 hours movie were the hammer you with propaganda on books and men who written them ,I do not have that time and you could have save that time by taken 3 minutes to quote those scriptures but NO, you delegate to another what you could do in a easy way ,

i still do not see a difference except one is written in modern English,so show us what is what you want to point out in your quote

[Ed J]

Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,13:56)

edj I was not taliking about your ego but King James

[Ed J]

Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,15:10)

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,09:16) Quote (t8 @ July 21 2013,10:21) So that is your scriptural proof that King James commissioned the only accurate translation of the Bible and it came in one language. I could equally prove that the NIV is the only true translation because that sounds foolish too. There is a difference between what appears as foolish to men Ed J and what actually is foolish. Hi T8, Then God said, “Take your son, your only son, whom you love–Isaac–and go to the region of Moriah. (NIV Perversion) Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you.”             (According to the N.I.V. Did Abraham disobey God Or did God lie?) If you want to discuss the “AKJV Bible” – here's the link… (Link)  God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org edj your a speculator,not a true man of truth ,if you where one you would show the KJV side by side with the NIV and show the difference and how it is so in error ,but you did not do that why if you think I have the time to look at a 2.5 hours movie were the hammer you with propaganda on books and men who written them ,I do not have that time and you could have save that time by taken 3 minutes to quote those scriptures but NO, you delegate to another what you could do in a easy way , i still do not see a difference except one is written in modern English,so show us what is what you want to point out in your quote

Hi Pierre,

“Prove all things; hold fast that which is good.
Abstain from all appearance of evil.” (1Thess5:21-22)  
        (the NIV is the appearance of 'EVIL'!)

GOD said instead to “OFFER” his son as a burnt offering (see Gen.22:2-18),
WHICH ABRAHAM FAITHFULLY DID, did he not?         (<– please answer) 

(Gen 22:2) “OFFER HIM there for a burnt offering” (AKJV Bible)

God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

[terraricca]

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,10:36)

Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,15:10) Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,09:16) Quote (t8 @ July 21 2013,10:21) So that is your scriptural proof that King James commissioned the only accurate translation of the Bible and it came in one language. I could equally prove that the NIV is the only true translation because that sounds foolish too. There is a difference between what appears as foolish to men Ed J and what actually is foolish. Hi T8, Then God said, “Take your son, your only son, whom you love–Isaac–and go to the region of Moriah. (NIV Perversion) Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you.”             (According to the N.I.V. Did Abraham disobey God Or did God lie?) If you want to discuss the “AKJV Bible” – here's the link… (Link)  God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org edj your a speculator,not a true man of truth ,if you where one you would show the KJV side by side with the NIV and show the difference and how it is so in error ,but you did not do that why if you think I have the time to look at a 2.5 hours movie were the hammer you with propaganda on books and men who written them ,I do not have that time and you could have save that time by taken 3 minutes to quote those scriptures but NO, you delegate to another what you could do in a easy way , i still do not see a difference except one is written in modern English,so show us what is what you want to point out in your quote Hi Pierre, “Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. Abstain from all appearance of evil.” (1Thess5:21-22)           (the NIV is the appearance of 'EVIL'!) GOD said instead to “OFFER” his son as a burnt offering (see Gen.22:2-18), WHICH ABRAHAM FAITHFULLY DID, did he not?         (<– please answer)  (Gen 22:2) “OFFER HIM there for a burnt offering” (AKJV Bible) God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

Edj

Show the NIV with the KJV and see it

[Ed J]

Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,16:40)

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,10:36) Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,15:10) Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,09:16) Quote (t8 @ July 21 2013,10:21) So that is your scriptural proof that King James commissioned the only accurate translation of the Bible and it came in one language. I could equally prove that the NIV is the only true translation because that sounds foolish too. There is a difference between what appears as foolish to men Ed J and what actually is foolish. Hi T8, Then God said, “Take your son, your only son, whom you love–Isaac–and go to the region of Moriah. (NIV Perversion) Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you.”             (According to the N.I.V. Did Abraham disobey God Or did God lie?) If you want to discuss the “AKJV Bible” – here's the link… (Link)  God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org edj your a speculator,not a true man of truth ,if you where one you would show the KJV side by side with the NIV and show the difference and how it is so in error ,but you did not do that why if you think I have the time to look at a 2.5 hours movie were the hammer you with propaganda on books and men who written them ,I do not have that time and you could have save that time by taken 3 minutes to quote those scriptures but NO, you delegate to another what you could do in a easy way , i still do not see a difference except one is written in modern English,so show us what is what you want to point out in your quote Hi Pierre, “Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. Abstain from all appearance of evil.” (1Thess5:21-22)           (the NIV is the appearance of 'EVIL'!) GOD said instead to “OFFER” his son as a burnt offering (see Gen.22:2-18), WHICH ABRAHAM FAITHFULLY DID, did he not?         (<– please answer)  (Gen 22:2) “OFFER HIM there for a burnt offering” (AKJV Bible) God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org Edj Show the NIV with the KJV and see it

NIV in red
AKJV Bible in blue

[Proclaimer]

Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,03:52)

edj 1Co 14:26 What then shall we say, brothers? When you come together, everyone has a hymn, or a word of instruction, a revelation, a tongue or an interpretation. All of these must be done for the strengthening of the church. 1Co 14:27 If anyone speaks in a tongue, two—or at the most three—should speak, one at a time, and someone must interpret. 1Co 14:28 If there is no interpreter, the speaker should keep quiet in the church and speak to himself and God. your interpretation of scriptures is strange to say the least ,it seems self fulfilling to me would not say it

I agree. It is a bad idea to twist scripture for one's own means.

An attack on truth is an attack on God.

[terraricca]

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,13:14)

Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,16:40) Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,10:36) Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,15:10) Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,09:16) Quote (t8 @ July 21 2013,10:21) So that is your scriptural proof that King James commissioned the only accurate translation of the Bible and it came in one language. I could equally prove that the NIV is the only true translation because that sounds foolish too. There is a difference between what appears as foolish to men Ed J and what actually is foolish. Hi T8, Then God said, “Take your son, your only son, whom you love–Isaac–and go to the region of Moriah. (NIV Perversion) Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you.”             (According to the N.I.V. Did Abraham disobey God Or did God lie?) If you want to discuss the “AKJV Bible” – here's the link… (Link)  God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org edj your a speculator,not a true man of truth ,if you where one you would show the KJV side by side with the NIV and show the difference and how it is so in error ,but you did not do that why if you think I have the time to look at a 2.5 hours movie were the hammer you with propaganda on books and men who written them ,I do not have that time and you could have save that time by taken 3 minutes to quote those scriptures but NO, you delegate to another what you could do in a easy way , i still do not see a difference except one is written in modern English,so show us what is what you want to point out in your quote Hi Pierre, “Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. Abstain from all appearance of evil.” (1Thess5:21-22)           (the NIV is the appearance of 'EVIL'!) GOD said instead to “OFFER” his son as a burnt offering (see Gen.22:2-18), WHICH ABRAHAM FAITHFULLY DID, did he not?         (<– please answer)  (Gen 22:2) “OFFER HIM there for a burnt offering” (AKJV Bible) God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org Edj Show the NIV with the KJV and see it NIV in red AKJV Bible in blue

I do not see any difference ,OFFERING AND SACRIFICE MEANS THE SAME THING ,OR ARE YOU WILLING TO BRING ALL THE OLD TESTAMENT TO PROVE IT (THE LAW)

[Ed J]

Quote (terraricca @ July 23 2013,01:12)

Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,13:14) Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,16:40) Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,10:36) Quote (terraricca @ July 22 2013,15:10) Quote (Ed J @ July 22 2013,09:16) (NIV Perversion) Sacrifice him there as a burnt offering a true man of truth ,if you where one you would show the KJV side by side with the NIV and show the difference and how it is so in error ,but you did not do that Hi Pierre, “Prove all things; hold fast that which is good. Abstain from all appearance of evil.” (1Thess5:21-22)           (the NIV is the appearance of 'EVIL'!) GOD said instead to “OFFER” his son as a burnt offering (see Gen.22:2-18), WHICH ABRAHAM FAITHFULLY DID, did he not?         (<– please answer)  (Gen 22:2) “OFFER HIM there for a burnt offering” (AKJV Bible) God bless Ed J (Joshua 22:34) http://www.holycitybiblecode.org Edj Show the NIV with the KJV and see it NIV in red AKJV Bible in blue I do not see any difference ,OFFERING AND SACRIFICE MEANS THE SAME THING ,OR ARE YOU WILLING TO BRING ALL THE OLD TESTAMENT TO PROVE IT (THE LAW)

Was Isaac Sacrificed?   “Yes” or “No“?

[Author]

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