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- July 18, 2012 at 10:48 pm#306324JeremyParticipant
Hello all,
I`m trying to find out if the name Jehovah appears in the new testament or not?
I would also be interested to find out which translation of the bible people use?
Jeremy
July 18, 2012 at 11:08 pm#306325Ed JParticipantQuote (Jeremy @ July 19 2012,09:48) Hello all, I`m trying to find out if the name Jehovah appears in the new testament or not?
I would also be interested to find out which translation of the bible people use?
Jeremy
Hi Jeremy,It does not.
The “AKJV Bible”. (Link)
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgJuly 18, 2012 at 11:27 pm#306329mikeboll64BlockedHi Jeremy,
Here is some information you might be interested in:
The Name Was There
We can be sure that the apostle Matthew included God’s name in his Gospel. Why? Because he wrote it originally in Hebrew. In the fourth century, Jerome, who translated the Latin Vulgate, reported: “Matthew, who is also Levi, and who from a publican came to be an apostle, first of all composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language . . . Who translated it after that in Greek is not sufficiently ascertained. Moreover, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea.”
Since Matthew wrote in Hebrew, it is inconceivable that he did not use God’s name, especially when quoting from parts of the “Old Testament” that contained the name. However, other writers of the second part of the Bible wrote for a worldwide audience in the international language of that time, Greek. Hence, they did not quote from the original Hebrew writings but from the Septuagint Greek version. And even Matthew’s Gospel was eventually translated into Greek. Would God’s name have appeared in these Greek writings?
Well, some very old fragments of the Septuagint Version that actually existed in Jesus’ day have survived down to our day, and it is noteworthy that the personal name of God appeared in them. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Volume 2, page 512) says: “Recent textual discoveries cast doubt on the idea that the compilers of the LXX [Septuagint] translated the tetragrammaton YHWH by kyrios. The oldest LXX MSS (fragments) now available to us have the tetragrammaton written in Heb[rew] characters in the G[ree]k text. This custom was retained by later Jewish translators of the O[ld] T[estament] in the first centuries A.D.” Therefore, whether Jesus and his disciples read the Scriptures in Hebrew or Greek, they would come across the divine name.
Thus, Professor George Howard, of the University of Georgia, U.S.A., made this comment: “When the Septuagint which the New Testament church used and quoted contained the Hebrew form of the divine name, the New Testament writers no doubt included the Tetragrammaton in their quotations.” (Biblical Archaeology Review, March 1978, page 14) What authority would they have had to do otherwise?
God’s name remained in Greek translations of the “Old Testament” for a while longer. In the first half of the second century C.E., the Jewish proselyte Aquila made a new translation of the Hebrew Scriptures into Greek, and in this he represented God’s name by the Tetragrammaton in ancient Hebrew characters. In the third century, Origen wrote: “And in the most accurate manuscripts THE NAME occurs in Hebrew characters, yet not in today’s Hebrew [characters], but in the most ancient ones.”
Even in the fourth century, Jerome writes in his prologue to the books of Samuel and Kings: “And we find the name of God, the Tetragrammaton [יהוה], in certain Greek volumes even to this day expressed in ancient letters.”
The Removal of the Name
By this time, however, the apostasy foretold by Jesus had taken shape, and the name, although appearing in manuscripts, was used less and less. (Matthew 13:24-30; Acts 20:29, 30) Eventually, many readers did not even recognize what it was and Jerome reports that in his time “certain ignorant ones, because of the similarity of the characters, when they would find [the Tetragrammaton] in Greek books, were accustomed to read ΠΙΠΙ.”
In later copies of the Septuagint, God’s name was removed and words like “God” (The·os′) and “Lord” (Ky′ri·os) were substituted. We know that this happened because we have early fragments of the Septuagint where God’s name was included and later copies of those same parts of the Septuagint where God’s name has been removed.
The same thing occurred in the “New Testament,” or Christian Greek Scriptures. Professor George Howard goes on to say: “When the Hebrew form for the divine name was eliminated in favor of Greek substitutes in the Septuagint, it was eliminated also from the New Testament quotations of the Septuagint. . . . Before long the divine name was lost to the Gentile church except insofar as it was reflected in the contracted surrogates or remembered by scholars.”
Hence, while Jews refused to pronounce God’s name, the apostate Christian church managed to remove it completely from Greek language manuscripts of both parts of the Bible, as well as from other language versions.
It cannot be known for sure whether or not the earliest copies of the NT contained the name. The Jehovah's Witnesses incorporate God's personal name into their NT – in all places where it is clear from context that Jehovah is the god being discussed.
As for versions, most of us here use many different versions, and even the Greek and Hebrew texts. You can find this information on sites like NETBible, where they show 9 English translations, along with the Hebrew, LXX, and Greek texts.
I have personally read the NWT, the NIV, the CEV, and the NASB cover to cover. So far the NIV is my favorite.
I just started a huge undertaking last week. I am reading the NET Bible, complete with the thousands of footnotes, one chapter per day. Today I read Genesis 10, which has 32 verses, but 97 footnotes. It will probably take me three years to finish their version.
Anyway, welcome to HN. I hoped this info helped out a little.
peace,
mikeJuly 19, 2012 at 2:19 am#306352seekingtruthParticipantHi Jeremy,
welcome to HN.I like to study from each of these versions as they each bring something different to understanding what the writer was trying to relay.
Amplified Bible
Easy-to-Read Version
King James Version
New American Standard Bible
New International Version
Young's Literal TranslationHope you stick around.
Wm
July 19, 2012 at 3:38 pm#306391GeneBalthropParticipantJeremy…………Welcome Brother, Hope you stay here is Beneficial.
My understanding of the Word God is that word GOD is a POSITION , and Not a Person and the Word LORD is come from the Name Yahweh. What helps me is a quote Jesus used from the Hebrew Scriptures, “Here O Israel the “LORD” (Yahweh) our GOD is “ONE” LORD (Yahweh) this shows “Yahweh” as a GOD. He was the God of Israel and as Jesus said later The “ONLY” TRUE GOD Jesus Portrayed Him as the FATHER over and over, but told His apostles that he was using a proverbial (factious illustration) Language to describe him but a time would come when he would show them clearly who the Father was, So there seem to be a “MYSTERY” surrounding HIM. I see the word LORD in upper case letters as meaning Yahweh who is the one and only “TRUE” GOD. this is my take on this subject.
You have picked a very interesting subject brother
peace and love to you and yours………………………………………………………………………….
…….gene
July 23, 2012 at 10:13 pm#306774davidParticipantTo be more clear, instead of saying: “Does the name 'Jehovah' appear in the new testament,” you should perhaps ask if the tetragrammaton (the 4 letters representing the divine name) appear in the NT.
The quick answer is that it does not. Only the shortened abreviated poetic form of the divine name…”Jah” appears in Revelation. As in: “praise Jah,” which is often left as Hallelujah.
However, unlike the Hebrew scriptures, which were written on more long lasting materials, we don't have copies of the earliest NT. We only have copies of copies of copies.
What is interesting to me is to ask:
“When quoting from the Heb scriptures, which contains the divine name thousands of times, would the inspired writers of the NT have been inspired to take the name out?”
You can look in all kinds of Bible's today, and you won't find the name Jehovah anywhere in it… not the Greek, nor the Hebrew, despite the fact that the divine name was definitely in the original Hebrew roughly 7000 times. It seems many do not want God's name in their Bible's. So, for me, the fact that we don't have copies (we only have copies of copies) of manuscripts that contain the divine name, isn't really proof of anything, one way or the other.
It seems odd to me to think that for thousands of years, God's people would use his name, and he would have his name written into his book 7000 times, and then suddenly, God would no longer want his people to use his name. It's an odd thought for me.
Which Bible?
I use them all.
July 23, 2012 at 10:16 pm#306775davidParticipantQuote Well, some very old fragments of the Septuagint Version that actually existed in Jesus’ day have survived down to our day, and it is noteworthy that the personal name of God appeared in them. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Volume 2, page 512) says: “Recent textual discoveries cast doubt on the idea that the compilers of the LXX [Septuagint] translated the tetragrammaton YHWH by kyrios. The oldest LXX MSS (fragments) now available to us have the tetragrammaton written in Heb[rew] characters in the G[ree]k text. This custom was retained by later Jewish translators of the O[ld] T[estament] in the first centuries A.D.” Therefore, whether Jesus and his disciples read the Scriptures in Hebrew or Greek, they would come across the divine name. This is the point I was trying to make. It seems odd that they wouldn't use it. Sure, later, superstitions and pharisees and all kinds of things happening. But the group that actually represented God and wrote the NT, I don't see why they wouldn't follow the tradition those before and use God's name in writing, and use it often. (Especially when quoting from the Hebrew scriptures, which some of them did a lot.)
July 23, 2012 at 10:26 pm#306777WakeupParticipantQuote (Jeremy @ July 19 2012,09:48) Hello all, I`m trying to find out if the name Jehovah appears in the new testament or not?
I would also be interested to find out which translation of the bible people use?
Jeremy
jeremy.No; not in the new testament of the King james,this is the only one I use,for it has a very unique lingo.
wakeup.
July 23, 2012 at 10:31 pm#306779terrariccaParticipantQuote (david @ July 24 2012,16:16) Quote Well, some very old fragments of the Septuagint Version that actually existed in Jesus’ day have survived down to our day, and it is noteworthy that the personal name of God appeared in them. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Volume 2, page 512) says: “Recent textual discoveries cast doubt on the idea that the compilers of the LXX [Septuagint] translated the tetragrammaton YHWH by kyrios. The oldest LXX MSS (fragments) now available to us have the tetragrammaton written in Heb[rew] characters in the G[ree]k text. This custom was retained by later Jewish translators of the O[ld] T[estament] in the first centuries A.D.” Therefore, whether Jesus and his disciples read the Scriptures in Hebrew or Greek, they would come across the divine name. This is the point I was trying to make. It seems odd that they wouldn't use it. Sure, later, superstitions and pharisees and all kinds of things happening. But the group that actually represented God and wrote the NT, I don't see why they wouldn't follow the tradition those before and use God's name in writing, and use it often. (Especially when quoting from the Hebrew scriptures, which some of them did a lot.)
hi DavidI agree with you ,how could they have quoted the OT and left out Gods name ,
July 23, 2012 at 10:33 pm#306780terrariccaParticipantJeremy
I use the Net Bible ,the NIV 1984, and the KJV 1611 and lather
July 24, 2012 at 4:51 am#306854LightenupParticipantHey Jeremy,
You might be interested in the Aramaic Bible in Plain English. This translation was from Aramaic manuscripts, not Greek. The disciples spoke Aramaic and wrote in Aramaic. This translation has 'Jehovah' in the NT all over the place and clearly shows that Jesus is referred to as Jehovah.You can find this Bible translation on this site:
http://aramaic-plain-english.scripturetext.com/matthew/1.htmAt that site, you can search for any verse and read many translations of that verse in their 'parallel' tab. Then click on the version that says Aramaic Bible in Plain English to read the chapter in that translation.
For example, look at this verse:
1 Cor. 8:6 To us, ours is one God The Father, for all things are from him and we are in him, and The One LORD JEHOVAH Yeshua The Messiah, for all things are by him, and we are also in his hand.July 24, 2012 at 5:47 am#306865LightenupParticipantJeremy check out these verses. I think that they are from the same Aramaic Bible in Plain English, some gal is responding to a question about Jesus being YHWH, see the link below:
For comparison, in the Old Testament, Isa. 45:21-23 (KJV) says, “who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD (YHWH)? and there is NO GOD ELSE BESIDE ME; A JUST GOD AND A SAVIOUR; there is none beside me. LOOK UNTO ME, AND BE YE SAVED, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else. I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That UNTO ME EVERY KNEE SHALL BOW, every tongue shall swear.”
In the New Testament, Rom. 14:9-14 (HRV) says, “Messiah died and is alive and is raised that he might be YHWH to the dead and to the living….As it is written, I live, says YHWH. EVERY KNEE SHALL BOW TO ME and every tongue will confess me. Therefore let us not judge one another…I know and am persuaded by YHWH YESHUA that there is not a thing that is defiled from itself…”
John 12:12,13 (HRV) says, “when they heard that Yeshua was coming to Yerushalayim, they were crying and saying, Hoshianna, blessed is he who comes in the name of YHWH, THE KING OF ISRAEL” (as in Isa. 44:6).
Acts 9:29 (HRV) says, “Bar Nabba took him and brought him to the emissaries and related to them hoe on the road HE HAD SEEN YHWH and how he spoke with him and how in Darm'suk HE SPOKE BOLDLY IN THE NAME OF YESHUA.”
Acts10:36 (HRV) says, “YESHUA THE MESSIAH, HE IS YHWH OF ALL.”
Regarding communion, I Cor. 11:27 (HRV) says, “whoever eats of THE BREAD OF YHWH and drinks from his cup and is not worthy, he is indebted to THE BLOOD OF YHWH and to his body.”
I Cor. 12:3 (HRV) says, “there is no one who speaks by the spirit of Eloah (God) and says that Yeshua is accursed. And neither is a man able to say that YHWH IS YESHUA except by the Ruach HaKodesh” (Holy Spirit).
Revealing the Trinity, I Cor. 12:4-6 (HRV) says, “there are distributions of gifts but the SPIRIT IS ONE (the Holy Spirit). And there are distributions of services but YHWH IS ONE (Yahshua). And there are distributions of powers but ELOAH IS ONE” (the Father).
I Cor. 15:47 (HRV) says, “The first son of man (Adam) was dust that was from the earth. THE SECOND MAN (Yeshua) WAS YHWH FROM HEAVEN.”
I Cor. 8:6 (HRV) says, “But to us ourselves, [there] is ONE ELOAH, THE FATHER, from whom [are] all [things] and by whom we are, and ONE YHWH, YESHUA THE MESSIAH; by his hand [are] all [things] and by his hand we are also.”
James, brother of Yahshua/Jesus understood who Yahshua really was when he wrote this. In James 3:8,9 (HRV), he said, “But the tongue, no man is able to subdue; this evil, when it is not restrained, if full of the poison of death. With it we bless YHWH (Yahshua) AND THE FATHER (Eloah), and with it we curse the sons of men who are made in the likeness of Eloah” (i.e., having three parts, as we have body, soul and spirit).
In James 5:7 (HRV), he said, “my brothers, be patient UNTIL THE COMING OF YHWH, as the husbandman who waits for the precious fruit of his ground and is patient for them UNTIL HE RECEIVES THE EARLY AND LATTER RAIN.” This probably shows that at the Rapture, “the rain is over and gone,” as in Song of Solomon 2:11. The latter rain is in Nisan, which started March 23. I hope the Rapture will be on Ascension Day, May 17,2004.
In I Peter 3:15 (HRV), Peter said, “sanctify YHWH, THE MESSIAH.”
I got this from near the end of this webpage: http://prophecycorner.theforeverfamily.com/procon1114.html
July 24, 2012 at 5:52 am#306867davidParticipantlightenup, that seems an interesting topic and could very easily have it's own thread.
July 24, 2012 at 5:54 am#306869LightenupParticipantYes, David, it is very interesting!
July 24, 2012 at 11:43 pm#306962mikeboll64BlockedQuote (david @ July 23 2012,23:52) lightenup, that seems an interesting topic and could very easily have it's own thread.
We know that scribes changed YHWH to “Lord” in the OT. The translators of the Bible Kathi quoted simply changed “Lord” in the Greek text to “YHWH” – apparently with no regard to whether the Lord mentioned was indeed YHWH, or His servant, Jesus.I wouldn't count that as any kind of proof that Jehovah's name was used in the NT, nor would I count it as “interesting”.
July 25, 2012 at 12:57 am#306982LightenupParticipantWell Mike, that is not true. Did you just pull that out of your wishful thinking cap? You make huge assumptions there without backing them up or taking time to research what you claim as the translators having 'no regard.' Where was YOUR regard for researching how they translated? Was it with NO regard on your part like you are judging them to 'apparently' having 'no regard'?
Did you look into this translation to see how they translated this version before you made your claim, yes or no??
July 25, 2012 at 1:31 am#306993mikeboll64BlockedWell Kathi,
If there is no Greek ms in existence that has “YHWH” in it, then they have CHANGED the word “kurios” to “YHWH”, haven't they?
The NWT does the same thing, but only in cases where it is clear (to them at least) that the one being described is the MOST HIGH God – not His servant, Son, and anointed one, Jesus Christ.
July 25, 2012 at 1:35 am#306997LightenupParticipantMike,
They say that the original was not in Greek but Hebrew and Aramaic.July 25, 2012 at 1:40 am#307001mikeboll64BlockedWho says?
July 25, 2012 at 2:34 am#307013LightenupParticipantMike
Again, I ask:Did you look into this translation to see how they translated this version before you made your claim, yes or no??
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