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- November 21, 2011 at 8:36 pm#262903carmelParticipant
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 18 2011,08:41) Quote (carmel @ Nov. 17 2011,10:08)
mike,Since your belief, made you believe that God Almighty,was not capable to become man,and walked on earth,you would never be allowed from God Himself to see the truth.
Charles, God is capable of anything. In fact, He is capable of making you fly right now, but that doesn't mean you're airborne, right?Capability has nothing to do with it. The scriptures tells us what God DID – not what He was capable of doing. And scriptures tell us that God so loved the world that He sent His only begotten Son as a sacrificial Lamb that He offered on our behalf. Scriptures do NOT tell us that God so loved the world that He Himself came to die as a sacrifice.
Quote (carmel @ Nov. 17 2011,10:08)
Also you first have to stop calling God Almighty jehovah.God has no name.It is an insult.
Go read Exodus 3:13-14 to find out how unscriptural your claim is.Quote (carmel @ Nov. 17 2011,10:08)
Douay-Rheims Bible: Philipians 2:6 Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:7 But emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men, and in habit found as a man.
8 He humbled himself, becoming obedient unto death, even to the death of the cross.
9 For which cause God also hath exalted him, and hath given him a name which is above all names:
10 That in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of those that are in heaven, on earth, and under the earth:
11 And that every tongue should confess that the Lord Jesus Christ is in the glory of God the Father.
You have to do something with this scripture first.
To me it is more than enough.
What would you like me to do to it? Explain it to you? Okay, I will:1. If Jesus was “in the form OF God”, then he wasn't the God he was in the form OF.
2. If Jesus even considered equality WITH God, then he couldn't have BEEN God. God cannot be “equal to” Himself.
3. Verse 8 speaks of the DEATH of the Son OF God. God cannot die. Jesus did.
4. Verse 9 tells how our ONE God exalted His Holy Servant Jesus. Charles, God is omnipotent, right? How in the world could one who is already ALL-POWERFUL be exalted to a HIGHER place? And who could possibly be above God to exalt Him?
5. Verse 11 says that every tongue will confess that Jesus is Lord…………..TO THE GLORY OF GOD.
That's more than enough evidence for anyone with half a brain to figure out that Jesus is someone OTHER THAN the God who SENT him into the world and later EXALTED him.
But why is it always we who have to “do something with this scripture”? Why don't YOU ever have to address the many points WE'RE making?
You have left about three recent posts of mine unanswered, Charles. But let's forget about them and move forward:
Charles, does it make sense that the God MOST HIGH would have a God of His own? YES or NO?
Quote 1. If Jesus was “in the form OF God”, then he wasn't the God he was in the form OF Michaelangelo's pieta is the mountain which was cut the carrara marble from,but in the form of a statue.
Are you telling me that the statue of pieta is not the mountain???
Quote If Jesus even considered equality WITH God, then he couldn't have BEEN God. God cannot be “equal to” Himself. What equals God, if not God only?
Quote Verse 8 speaks of the DEATH of the Son OF God. God cannot die. Jesus did. God did die in the form of Jesus. Since Jesus was in the form of God.
Quote Verse 9 tells how our ONE God exalted His Holy Servant Jesus. Charles, God is omnipotent, right? How in the world could one who is already ALL-POWERFUL be exalted to a HIGHER place? And who could possibly be above God to exalt Him? God was and is exalted in Jesus body and for the very first time ever the Father became visible,and in flesh and bones. The omnipotence of God fulfilled, before it wasn't yet!
All heavenly host were, astonished,and astounding with joy when they saw God glorified for the very first time .OK Mike FOR THE VERY FIRST TIME.EXALTED THROUGH JESUS AS GOD.
John 17:10 10And all mine are thine, and thine are mine; and I am glorified in them
11 And that every tongue should confess that the Lord Jesus Christ is in the glory of God the Father.
That's more than enough evidence for anyone with half a brain to figure out that God the Father is glorified in Jesus Christ body for eternity.
THE FATHER NEVER HAD A BODY
Quote Charles, does it make sense that the God MOST HIGH would have a God of His own? YES or NO? Mark 9:37: Whosoever shall receive one such child as this in my name, receiveth me. And whosoever shall receive me, receiveth not me, but him that sent me.
Does it make sense that whoever receives Jesus,in reality doesn't receive Jesus but receive the Father.Unless Jesus is not The Father???
peace and love in Jesus
Charles
November 21, 2011 at 8:49 pm#262906carmelParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 21 2011,11:37) Quote (carmel @ Nov. 20 2011,09:19) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 18 2011,08:41) Charles, does it make sense that the God MOST HIGH would have a God of His own? YES or NO?
Mike ,Does these make sense : IF YES, DEFINE
Genesis 1:5……..And the evening and the morning were the first day.
Charles,Is your answer to show me other scriptures that YOU think don't make sense? Is that REALLY how you're going to address the fact that YOU KNOW it makes no sense for God Most High to have a God of His own?
“Hey Mike, it doesn't have to make sense because I also can't make sense of these scriptures. So there!”
Charles, I will be happy to help you understand all of the scriptures you listed. Your first one is properly translated:
There was evening, and there was morning, marking the first day – NETBible
And there was evening, and there was morning—the first day – NIV
And there was evening and there was morning, one day – NASB
And there was evening and there was morning, the first day – NRSV
Quote There was evening, and there was morning, marking the first day – NETBible Mike,
that is too far away from the truth!!
That is corrupted carnal definition,twisted to deviate whoever reads the Bible.
compare: were the first day
Genesis 1:5……..And the evening and the morning were the first day.
Peace and love in Jesus
Charles
November 21, 2011 at 8:57 pm#262908Ed JParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Nov. 21 2011,11:27)
The name “Jesus” is a translation(English) of a translation(Greek).
At least the name “JEHOVAH” came to us directly from the Hebrew.
Hi CharlesNo comment here?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNovember 22, 2011 at 1:28 am#262931mikeboll64BlockedQuote (carmel @ Nov. 21 2011,13:36)
Are you telling me that the statue of pieta is not the mountain???
Well Charles, do people look at the stature of pieta and say, “Hey look! There is a beautiful mountain of carrerra marble!”? Or do they say, “There is the statue of pieta!”?If they don't look at the statue and think they are gazing at a huge mountain, then NO, the statue is NOT the mountain its stone was cut from.
Quote (carmel @ Nov. 21 2011,13:36)
What equals God, if not God only?
It the Bible equal to the Bible? Is the Washington monument equal to the Washington monument? Is the sun equal to the sun? Charles, individual things cannot be said to “be equal to” themselves. Charles cannot be “equal to” Charles, because Charles IS Charles. Get it?Quote (carmel @ Nov. 21 2011,13:36)
God did die in the form of Jesus.
God cannot die. Jesus could, and did. Paul says that since he died and was raised from the dead, death NO LONGER holds any mastery over him. That tells us that at one time, death DID hold mastery over him. Paul also tells us that FROM NOW ON, Jesus cannot die AGAIN. But God never could die. He has always been from everlasting to everlasting.Charles, could death ever have mastery over God? God created death, right? Can the clay say to the potter, “You are my servant”?
Charles, Jehovah is the Most High God. (Gen 14:22) And Jesus is the SON OF the Most High God. (Mark 5:7) You need only accept these scriptures as truth, and you'll be well on your way.
peace,
mikeNovember 22, 2011 at 1:32 am#262932mikeboll64BlockedQuote (carmel @ Nov. 21 2011,13:49) Mike, that is too far away from the truth!!
That is corrupted carnal definition,twisted to deviate whoever reads the Bible.
compare: were the first day
Genesis 1:5……..And the evening and the morning were the first day.
Charles,You need to look at what the Hebrew actually says:
came to pass evening came to pass morning day one
November 22, 2011 at 7:24 am#262940carmelParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Nov. 22 2011,06:57) Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 21 2011,11:27)
The name “Jesus” is a translation(English) of a translation(Greek).
At least the name “JEHOVAH” came to us directly from the Hebrew.
Hi CharlesNo comment here?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote At least the name “JEHOVAH” came to us directly from the Hebrew. Ed J,
To help you reflect again since you simply ignored this.
Y H W H
J E H O V A H
False guess right guess false guess rightAm I wrong if I say that since the publication of the King James Version of the Bible in 1611, millions of Christians have believed that the name of God is Jehovah.??
Don’t you think that this erroneous belief spread as the Christianized English conquered exotic countries around the world and took their beloved KJV Bibles with them.??
Am I exaggerating if I say that the Pentateuch were compiled at least 900 years before Christ??
Isn’t true that we actually have are copies??
Isn’t true that Hebrew used in these ancient texts is different than the Hebrew used at a later date.?
Wasn’t more primitive, and also it contained no vowels.??
Isn’t it that true this reason the word YHWH was rendered in English??
It’s not only due to practical purposes, that it was to GUESS A PRONOUCIATION?
Wasn’t it more appropriate since it had to be guessed to pronounce it as YAHWEH , INSERTING ONLY VOWELS AND MAINTAIN THE CONSONANT like it was used for hundreds of years??
Isn’t it true that the Jews resented the fact that the Christians had hijacked their sacred scriptures and they took steps to preserve it in its original form.?
Were not the Masoretes that used the word ADONAI ,and through this they decided to use the same vowels in the (Tetragrammaton) YHWH and became YAHOWAH.??
Were not the Germans to translate the first Bible from Jerome’s Latin Vulgate, and had a problem because the German language doesn't have “Y” or “W.” So, they changed these letters to “J” and “V” respectively and the word became JAHOVAH.
Isn’t it true that the English introduced it in their Bible in 1611 and changed one letter again to make it JEHOVAH??
Isn’t it clear that through this simple error from Satan’s inspiration, millions of Christians for 300 years believed the name of God really was Jehovah.??
Isn’t true that without any serious research, and also ignoring the fact that this is regarding God’s most sacred Holy Name, adopted this fictitious name for their own TO TAKE ADVANTAGE FIRST OF THE POPULARITY ALREADY ESTABLISHED AND SECOND OF THE POOR INTELIGENCE PEOPLE,BRAINWASH THEM,AND MAKE AN IMPACT AND INFLUENCE THEM, and began calling themselves Jehovah's Witnesses.
Isn’t also true that they even went so far as to re-write the Bible to replace the word “God” with the fictional name of Jehovah, even where there isn’t the word God in other bibles to please their corrupted carnal interest??
Isn’t it called the New World Translation.
Satan is very proud of you.
I wouldn’t become a JW FOR THE SAKE OF THAT NAME! never mind on their belief!!
Luke 16:10 He that is faithful in that which is least is faithful also in much: and he that is unjust in the least is unjust also in much.
Now answer!
What is the reason that we give names to something,and to somebody??
comment please.
Mark 12:24 And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God?
peace and love in Jesus
Charles
November 22, 2011 at 7:33 am#262941carmelParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 22 2011,11:32) Quote (carmel @ Nov. 21 2011,13:49) Mike, that is too far away from the truth!!
That is corrupted carnal definition,twisted to deviate whoever reads the Bible.
compare: were the first day
Genesis 1:5……..And the evening and the morning were the first day.
Charles,You need to look at what the Hebrew actually says:
came to pass evening came to pass morning day one
Quote You need to look at what the Hebrew actually says: iT IS NOT WHAT IT SAYS, IT'S WHAT IT MEANT TO BE,WHEN WE REFER TO SCRIPTURES
came to pass evening came to pass morning day one
Why it started from evening,and then morning which equals 12 hours??
What is common between evening and morning??
What it meant to be DAY ONE?
What it is referring to??
What is not common in DAY ONE ,WHICH IS COMMON IN EVENING AND MORNING???
PEACE AND LOVE IN JESUS
CHARLES.
November 22, 2011 at 3:50 pm#264923carmelParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 22 2011,11:28) Quote (carmel @ Nov. 21 2011,13:36)
Are you telling me that the statue of pieta is not the mountain???
Well Charles, do people look at the stature of pieta and say, “Hey look! There is a beautiful mountain of carrerra marble!”? Or do they say, “There is the statue of pieta!”?If they don't look at the statue and think they are gazing at a huge mountain, then NO, the statue is NOT the mountain its stone was cut from.
Quote (carmel @ Nov. 21 2011,13:36)
What equals God, if not God only?
It the Bible equal to the Bible? Is the Washington monument equal to the Washington monument? Is the sun equal to the sun? Charles, individual things cannot be said to “be equal to” themselves. Charles cannot be “equal to” Charles, because Charles IS Charles. Get it?Quote (carmel @ Nov. 21 2011,13:36)
God did die in the form of Jesus.
God cannot die. Jesus could, and did. Paul says that since he died and was raised from the dead, death NO LONGER holds any mastery over him. That tells us that at one time, death DID hold mastery over him. Paul also tells us that FROM NOW ON, Jesus cannot die AGAIN. But God never could die. He has always been from everlasting to everlasting.Charles, could death ever have mastery over God? God created death, right? Can the clay say to the potter, “You are my servant”?
Charles, Jehovah is the Most High God. (Gen 14:22) And Jesus is the SON OF the Most High God. (Mark 5:7) You need only accept these scriptures as truth, and you'll be well on your way.
peace,
mikeQuote Well Charles, do people look at the stature of pieta and say, “Hey look! There is a beautiful mountain of carrerra marble!”? Or do they say, “There is the statue of pieta!”? My question is :
Are you telling me that the statue of pieta is not the mountain???
Answer me is the statue of pieta the same Carrara marble of the mountain. YES OR NO.
What the people say has nothing to do with what I asked you.
peace and love in Jesus
Charles
November 22, 2011 at 4:32 pm#264926terrariccaParticipantcharles
Quote Are you telling me that the statue of pieta is not the mountain??? sins God created the universe and all what is in it ,WHITCH PART HIS GOD ?
Pierre
November 22, 2011 at 5:15 pm#264931Ed JParticipantQuote (carmel @ Nov. 22 2011,17:24) Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 22 2011,06:57) Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 21 2011,11:27)
The name “Jesus” is a translation(English) of a translation(Greek).
At least the name “JEHOVAH” came to us directly from the Hebrew.
Hi CharlesNo comment here?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote At least the name “JEHOVAH” came to us directly from the Hebrew. Ed J,
To help you reflect again since you simply ignored this.
Y H W H
J E H O V A H
False guess right guessfalseguess rightHi Charles,
Your false is false. Hebrew has NO “W” sound!
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNovember 22, 2011 at 5:18 pm#264933Ed JParticipantQuote (carmel @ Nov. 22 2011,17:24)
Satan is very proud of you.
Hi Charles,What? …why do you say this?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNovember 22, 2011 at 5:22 pm#264934Ed JParticipantQuote (carmel @ Nov. 22 2011,17:24) Now answer! What is the reason that we give names to something,and to somebody??
comment please.
Hi Charles,Um, a, dah, um, I'm thinking give me a minute, so we can identify them by name? …did I get this right?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNovember 22, 2011 at 8:43 pm#264943carmelParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Nov. 23 2011,03:22) Quote (carmel @ Nov. 22 2011,17:24) Now answer! What is the reason that we give names to something,and to somebody??
comment please.
Hi Charles,Um, a, dah, um, I'm thinking give me a minute, so we can identify them by name? …did I get this right?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote Um, a, dah, um, I'm thinking give me a minute, so we can identify them by name? …did I get this right?
Edj,What will determine the right name to be able to identify that something or somebody?
Give an example so we could determine the truth.
peace and love in Jesus
Charles
November 22, 2011 at 9:15 pm#264946carmelParticipantEdj,
This shows it
BIBLICAL HEBREW
Chapter 1a – Hebrew Alphabet
twenty-three consonants
Letter Name Pronunciation Transliterationא Alef silent <
ב Bet b as in boy b
ג Gimel g as in God g
ד Dalet d as in day d
ה He h as in hay hו Waw w as in way w
ז Zayin z as in Zion z
ח Óet ch as in Bach ˙
ט Tet t as in toy †
י Yod y as in yes y
כ Kaf k as in king k
ל Lamed l as in lion l
מ Mem m as in mother m
נ Nun n as in now n
ס Samek s as in sin s
ע Ayin silent >
פ Pe p as in pastor p
צ Tsade ts as in boots ß
ק Qof k as in king q
ר Resh r as in run r
שׂ Sin s as in sin ∞
שׁ Shin sh as in ship ¡
ת Taw t as in toy tChapter 1b – Hebrew Alphabet
five final forms
Five Hebrew letters have “final” forms. When one of these
letters occurs at the end of a word, it is written differently
than when it appears at the beginning or in the middle of
a word. The changing of a letter’s form, however, does not
change its pronunciation or transliteration.
Regular Final Example Translit. Translation
Form Formדרך ך כ drk road, way
עם ם מ >m nation, people
זקן ן נ zqn old man, elder
כסף ף פ ksp money, silver
ארץ ץ צ <rß earth, land
אBasics of Biblical HebrewChapter 1c – Hebrew Alphabet
six begadkephat consonants
Six consonants have two possible pronunciations and are known as
begadkephat consonants. To distinguish between the two pronunciations, a
dot called Daghesh Lene was inserted into the consonant. The presence of
Daghesh Lene indicates a hard pronunciation and its absence denotes a soft
pronunciation.
Begadkephat Pronunciation Transliteration
Letterבּ b as in boy b
ב v as in vine ∫
גּ g as in God g
ג gh as in aghast ©
דּ d as in day d
ד dh as in the ƒ
כּ k as in king k
כ ch as in Bach ¬
פּ p as in pastor p
פ ph as in alphabet º
תּ t as in toy t
ת th as in thin ®
אBasicsNovember 22, 2011 at 9:33 pm#264948Ed JParticipantQuote (carmel @ Nov. 23 2011,06:43) Quote (Ed J @ Nov. 23 2011,03:22) Quote (carmel @ Nov. 22 2011,17:24) Now answer! What is the reason that we give names to something,and to somebody??
comment please.
Hi Charles,Um, a, dah, um, I'm thinking give me a minute, so we can identify them by name? …did I get this right?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote Um, a, dah, um, I'm thinking give me a minute, so we can identify them by name? …did I get this right?
Edj,What will determine the right name to be able to identify that something or somebody?
Give an example so we could determine the truth.
peace and love in Jesus
Charles
Hi Charles,A name that is descriptive of someone is one such example:
Take the name יהשוע (YÄ-shü-ă), this name means “YÄ's Salvation”.Here is corroborative evidence to which I attest…
“Thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins. (Matt 1:21)
You have a problem with the name JEHOVAH,
but you don't have a problem with the name Jesus.
I find that odd, could you please explain to us why this is?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgNovember 22, 2011 at 9:47 pm#264949Ed JParticipantQuote (carmel @ Nov. 23 2011,07:15) Edj, This shows it
BIBLICAL HEBREW
Chapter 1a – Hebrew Alphabet
twenty-three consonants
Letter Name Pronunciation Transliteration
Hi Charles,Hebrew has ONLY 22 letters, of which א Aleph and ע Ayin are vowels.
You really don't know anything about Hebrew, do you, Charles?HEBREW HAS NO “W” SOUND; why don't you actually research this
instead of just posting things that you agree with, OK?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orglNovember 22, 2011 at 10:23 pm#264952Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (carmel @ Nov. 17 2011,10:08) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 18 2011,08:41) If Jesus even considered equality WITH God, then he couldn't have BEEN God. God cannot be “equal to” Himself. What equals God, if not God only?
Hi CharlesGood point!
Blessings Keith
November 22, 2011 at 10:30 pm#264953mikeboll64BlockedQuote (carmel @ Nov. 22 2011,08:50) Answer me is the statue of pieta the same Carrara marble of the mountain. YES OR NO.
NO! It is OF the marble from that mountain. It is NOT the mountain it came FROM.Where are you going with this anyway?
November 22, 2011 at 10:36 pm#264954mikeboll64BlockedQuote (carmel @ Nov. 22 2011,00:33) iT IS NOT WHAT IT SAYS, IT'S WHAT IT MEANT TO BE,WHEN WE REFER TO SCRIPTURES came to pass evening came to pass morning day one
Why it started from evening,and then morning which equals 12 hours??
What is common between evening and morning??
What it meant to be DAY ONE?
What it is referring to??
What is not common in DAY ONE ,WHICH IS COMMON IN EVENING AND MORNING???
Why do you assume the “clock” started at evening? What if the “clock” started at 10:00 AM, and then “came to pass evening and came to pass morning AGAIN – one day”?Again, where are you going with this? Do you assert that since there are scriptures that are hard for us to understand, it gives you right to claim that God ALMIGHTY can have a God of His own?
Since “Almighty” means the same thing as “God Most High”, the God OF God Almighty would have to be a LESSOR God – because God Almighty is already the highest One.
Charles, God Almighty is the highest of all gods. There is none higher, and He has no god of His own. Instead, He is the “God OF gods”, as scriptures state.
November 22, 2011 at 10:48 pm#264955mikeboll64BlockedQuote (WorshippingJesus @ Nov. 22 2011,15:23) Quote (carmel @ Nov. 17 2011,10:08) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Nov. 18 2011,08:41) If Jesus even considered equality WITH God, then he couldn't have BEEN God. God cannot be “equal to” Himself. What equals God, if not God only?
Hi CharlesGood point!
Blessings Keith
Hi Keith,Is the Bible EQUAL TO the Bible? Is Keith EQUAL TO Keith?
These are the “good points” that I responded with to Charle's “good point”. He hasn't addressed those points yet. Perhaps you could?
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