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Hi:
We know that this scripture is in reference to Jesus Christ, and he has himself stated that he is not God, and so, I believe that “he” rather than God is the correct translation for that reason and also, because the scripture goes on to say, if the correct translation is “God”:
Quote 1Ti 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh,(God) justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. God does not have to be justified in the Spirit.
The scripture refers to Jesus being justified in the Spirit:
Quote Rom 1:1 ¶ Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called [to be] an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, Rom 1:2 (Which he had promised afore by his prophets in the holy scriptures,)
Rom 1:3 Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh;
Rom 1:4 And declared [to be] the Son of God with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead:
Love in Christ,
MartyQuote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 27 2013,12:45) Not to mention, Marty: WHO received God up in glory?
True! God at the right hand of God the Father?Quote (Wakeup @ Jan. 26 2013,16:28) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,14:24) Quote (jammin @ Jan. 26 2013,06:38) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,06:46) Quote (jammin @ Jan. 25 2013,14:55) you are not even a bible scholar t8. you can say that but that is not THE ONLY VERSE in the bible that proves CHRIST is God. kerwin's favorite version is the KJV NKJV and it says in 1 tim 3.16 that Christ is God.
although kerwin does not believe this truth bec he wants imagination LOLread codex sinaiticus
it says in john 20.28 that JESUS is THOMAS's LORD AND GOD28 Thomas answered and said to him: My Lord and my God.
there is nothing wrong in 1 tim 3.16 bec Christ is really God according to paul, thomas etc.
Christians believe that the son is like the father. they have the same nature, God
Jammin and all,I actually view the change as insignificant as I believe that God dwells in the flesh of those that believe through his Spirit and that Jesus is both the Pioneer and Finisher of their faith.
On the other hand I doubt Timothy 3:16 is directly speaking of Jesus Christ; though it seems to hint that it may be. I instead believe it is speaking of the mystery of being godly.
I do not think my eyes have been fully opened to its intent, though I do believe I have an outline of it.
you doubt, but the bible says it is Christ
you can read other version of 1tim 3.16
Jammin,The bible states it is the mystery of being godly.
Kerwin.1Tim.3:16.states that God was manifest in the flesh.
That is so true; he manifested himself through his Son.
his Son spoke what his Father tells him to say,and do.
God works through the flesh; His Son.And also ,the word used is MANIFEST; NOT MADE.
It does not say God was MADE flesh.
Hope this will make things more clear.wakeup.
the meaning of the verse is God (son) became human.
that God in tim 3.16 is Christ1 Timothy 3:16
Amplified Bible (AMP)
16 And great and important and weighty, we confess, is the hidden truth (the mystic secret) of godliness. He [[a]God] was made visible in human flesh, justified and vindicated in the [Holy] Spirit, was seen by angels, preached among the nations, believed on in the world, [and] taken up in glory.
1 Timothy 3:16
Common English Bible (CEB)
16 Without question, the mystery of godliness is great: he was revealed as a human, declared righteous by the Spirit, seen by angels, preached throughout the nations, believed in around the world, and taken up in glory.
1 Timothy 3:16
Contemporary English Version (CEV)
16 Here is the great mystery of our religion:
Christ[a] came as a human.
The Spirit proved
that he pleased God,
and he was seen by angels.Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,14:24) Quote (jammin @ Jan. 26 2013,06:38) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,06:46) Quote (jammin @ Jan. 25 2013,14:55) you are not even a bible scholar t8. you can say that but that is not THE ONLY VERSE in the bible that proves CHRIST is God. kerwin's favorite version is the KJV NKJV and it says in 1 tim 3.16 that Christ is God.
although kerwin does not believe this truth bec he wants imagination LOLread codex sinaiticus
it says in john 20.28 that JESUS is THOMAS's LORD AND GOD28 Thomas answered and said to him: My Lord and my God.
there is nothing wrong in 1 tim 3.16 bec Christ is really God according to paul, thomas etc.
Christians believe that the son is like the father. they have the same nature, God
Jammin and all,I actually view the change as insignificant as I believe that God dwells in the flesh of those that believe through his Spirit and that Jesus is both the Pioneer and Finisher of their faith.
On the other hand I doubt Timothy 3:16 is directly speaking of Jesus Christ; though it seems to hint that it may be. I instead believe it is speaking of the mystery of being godly.
I do not think my eyes have been fully opened to its intent, though I do believe I have an outline of it.
you doubt, but the bible says it is Christ
you can read other version of 1tim 3.16
Jammin,The bible states it is the mystery of being godly.
you should complete what the bible says.God was made visible in human flesh
1 Timothy 3:16
Amplified Bible (AMP)
16 And great and important and weighty, we confess, is the hidden truth (the mystic secret) of godliness. He [[a]God] was made visible in human flesh,
and that God is Christ , the son
1 Timothy 3:16
Contemporary English Version (CEV)
16 Here is the great mystery of our religion:
Christ[a] came as a human.
Jammin……..No one is denying God the Father was “IN” Jesus , Jesus said that many times, But what you are saying is GOD “IS” Jesus , now and that is a False statement son. Tell us the why did Jesus say this,” the son of man (Jesus) can do “nothing” of himself, the Father in him “HE” doth the works. Think about it boy!.
peace and love to you and yours ………………………………………………..gene
Quote (Wakeup @ Jan. 26 2013,16:28) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,14:24) Jammin, The bible states it is the mystery of being godly.
Kerwin.1Tim.3:16.states that God was manifest in the flesh.
That is so true; he manifested himself through his Son.wakeup.
Hi Wakeup,Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Gene Balthrop @ Jan. 28 2013,02:13) Jammin……..No one is denying God the Father was “IN” Jesus , Jesus said that many times, But what you are saying is GOD “IS” Jesus , now and that is a False statement son. Tell us the why did Jesus say this,” the son of man (Jesus) can do “nothing” of himself, the Father in him “HE” doth the works. Think about it boy!. peace and love to you and yours ………………………………………………..gene
that is what th bible saysread 1 tim 3.16
1 Timothy 3:161 Timothy 3:16
21st Century King James Version (KJ21)
16 And beyond controversy, great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh
God was manifest in the flesh. what is the meaning of that> who is that God?
let me post other version
Contemporary English Version (CEV)
16 Here is the great mystery of our religion:
Christ[a] came as a human.
see that? Christ came as a human.
that God in 1tim 3.16 is Christ and not the father. the son is like his father . he is God
Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 28 2013,10:52) Quote (Wakeup @ Jan. 26 2013,16:28) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,14:24) Jammin, The bible states it is the mystery of being godly.
Kerwin.1Tim.3:16.states that God was manifest in the flesh.
That is so true; he manifested himself through his Son.wakeup.
Hi Wakeup,Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
that is not what the bible saysit says in john 1.14
John 1:1421st Century King James Version (KJ21)
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only Begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth.
it does not say that the God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.this is just your added words boy.
make your own versionQuote (jammin @ Jan. 28 2013,12:35) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 28 2013,10:52) Quote (Wakeup @ Jan. 26 2013,16:28) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,14:24) Jammin, The bible states it is the mystery of being godly.
Kerwin.1Tim.3:16.states that God was manifest in the flesh.
That is so true; he manifested himself through his Son.wakeup.
Hi Wakeup,Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.God bless
Ed J
that is not what the bible saysit says in john 1.14
John 1:1421st Century King James Version (KJ21)
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only Begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth.
it does not say that the God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.this is just your added words boy.
make your own version
Hi Jammin, here is what “The Bible” says:John 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and
“The Word” which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Jan. 28 2013,13:42) Quote (jammin @ Jan. 28 2013,12:35) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 28 2013,10:52) Quote (Wakeup @ Jan. 26 2013,16:28) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,14:24) Jammin, The bible states it is the mystery of being godly.
Kerwin.1Tim.3:16.states that God was manifest in the flesh.
That is so true; he manifested himself through his Son.wakeup.
Hi Wakeup,Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.God bless
Ed J
that is not what the bible saysit says in john 1.14
John 1:1421st Century King James Version (KJ21)
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only Begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth.
it does not say that the God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.this is just your added words boy.
make your own version
Hi Jammin, here is what “The Bible” says:John 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and
“The Word” which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
i said where can you read your imagination?
you said God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.what verse is that>? i cant read that in john 1.14
Quote (jammin @ Jan. 28 2013,17:21) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 28 2013,13:42) Quote (jammin @ Jan. 28 2013,12:35) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 28 2013,10:52) Quote (Wakeup @ Jan. 26 2013,16:28) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,14:24) Jammin, The bible states it is the mystery of being godly.
Kerwin.1Tim.3:16.states that God was manifest in the flesh.
That is so true; he manifested himself through his Son.wakeup.
Hi Wakeup,Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.God bless
Ed J
that is not what the bible saysit says in john 1.14
John 1:1421st Century King James Version (KJ21)
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only Begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth.
it does not say that the God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.this is just your added words boy.
make your own version
Hi Jammin, here is what “The Bible” says:John 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and
“The Word” which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
i said where can you read your imagination?
you said God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.what verse is that>? i cant read that in john 1.14
Jammin,You should either ask Ed J why he believes as he does on this matter or reveal to him why you believe as you do, otherwise it sounds like an unprofitable schoolyard argument between children.
Quote (jammin @ Jan. 28 2013,22:21) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 28 2013,13:42) Quote (jammin @ Jan. 28 2013,12:35) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 28 2013,10:52) Quote (Wakeup @ Jan. 26 2013,16:28) Quote (kerwin @ Jan. 26 2013,14:24) Jammin, The bible states it is the mystery of being godly.
Kerwin.1Tim.3:16.states that God was manifest in the flesh.
That is so true; he manifested himself through his Son.wakeup.
Hi Wakeup,Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.God bless
Ed J
that is not what the bible saysit says in john 1.14
John 1:1421st Century King James Version (KJ21)
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only Begotten of the Father), full of grace and truth.
it does not say that the God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.this is just your added words boy.
make your own version
Hi Jammin, here is what “The Bible” says:John 14:24 He that loveth me not keepeth not my sayings: and
“The Word” which ye hear is not mine, but the Father's which sent me.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
i said where can you read your imagination?
you said God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh at Jesus' baptism by John the baptist.what verse is that>? i cant read that in john 1.14
Hi Jammin,As usual, you are ignoring the valid point I make.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Jan. 27 2013,17:52) Hi Wakeup, Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh………….
John 1:14 says “the Word BECAME flesh”, Ed. So unless you believe that God Almighty Himself BECAME flesh and was killed at the hand of puny humans, your understanding is flawed. (We can't just go adding the word “IN” into certain scriptures to force them to teach what we want them to teach.)Quote (t8 @ Jan. 24 2013,21:02) In ancient manuscripts 1 Timothy 3:16 had the word “os” which looks like: “OC” and means “he”. The nomina sacra of God looks like OC but it has a horizontal line through the middle of the O and a long horizontal line over both letters (as Abernathy, above, explained).
The Greek translator continues, and I quote: “In one old manuscript (Codex Alexandrinus) it seems to the nomina sacra, but an analysis of the manuscript demonstrated that the two horizontal lines were added centuries later.
For jammin, since he was asking for commentators:
Barnes' Notes on the BibleProbably there is no passage in the New Testament which has excited so much discussion among critics as this, and none in reference to which it is so difficult to determine the true reading. It is the only one, it is believed, in which the microscope has been employed to determine the lines of the letters used in a manuscript……….
To ascertain which of these is the true reading, has been the great question; and it is with reference to this that the microscope has been resorted to in the examination of the Alexandrian manuscript. It is now generally admitted that the faint line “over” the word has been added by some later hand……………
I ask you all one simple question: If there was even an INKLING of a chance that “God” was the original writing, WHY do all of the more recent TRINITARIAN translations have “He”?
Surely they would LOVE to have “God” in that verse, right? Why then, don't they? Just think it out, dudes.
Quote (942767 @ Jan. 26 2013,18:57) Hi: We know that this scripture is in reference to Jesus Christ…………..
Agreed, Marty. Kerwin is the first person I've ever heard claim something different. To me, it seems a no-brainer that the verse is about Christ.Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 29 2013,10:05) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 27 2013,17:52) Hi Wakeup, Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh………….
John 1:14 says “the Word BECAME flesh”, Ed. So unless you believe that God Almighty Himself BECAME flesh and was killed at the hand of puny humans, your understanding is flawed. (We can't just go adding the word “IN” into certain scriptures to force them to teach what we want them to teach.)
Hi Mike,All your logic illustrates is that our ideas cannot merge.
Once you unhinge the incorrect word structure you posted, you then
can begin to understand what “And the Word was made flesh” really means.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgEd,
I'm just basing my understanding on what is actually written. And I don't have to add the word “IN” to explain my understanding to others – like you do.
Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 29 2013,10:28) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 29 2013,10:05) Quote (Ed J @ Jan. 27 2013,17:52) Hi Wakeup, Yes, that is the meaning of John 1:14!
God (The Word) was truly manifest in the
flesh………….
John 1:14 says “the Word BECAME flesh”, Ed. So unless you believe that God Almighty Himself BECAME flesh and was killed at the hand of puny humans, your understanding is flawed. (We can't just go adding the word “IN” into certain scriptures to force them to teach what we want them to teach.)
Hi Mike,All your logic illustrates is that our ideas cannot merge.
Once you unhinge the incorrect word structure you posted, you then
can begin to understand what “And the Word was made flesh” really means.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
why dont you accept the truth ed?
you cant read your imagintion in john 1.14 and yet you want people to believe your imagination?
LOLwhat a funny doctrine you have
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 29 2013,05:19) Quote (942767 @ Jan. 26 2013,18:57) Hi: We know that this scripture is in reference to Jesus Christ…………..
Agreed, Marty. Kerwin is the first person I've ever heard claim something different. To me, it seems a no-brainer that the verse is about Christ.
Mike,It literally states it is about the mystery of godliness.
Some believe it infers that mystery is Christ.
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