david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 9 months ago
The year 1971 saw the release for publication of fragments of an ancient papyrus scroll (Fouad 266 papyri). What did these portions of the Septuagint, dating back to the second or first century B.C.E., reveal? The divine name was preserved in them also. These early fragments of the Septuagint provide strong evidence that Jesus and his…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 9 months ago
Strong's #3068: Yhovah (pronounced yeh-ho-vaw')from 1961; (the) self-Existent or Eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God:–Jehovah, the Lord. Compare 3050, 3069.Read more: http://bibletools.org/index.c….RnnbkuzQuote btw, David erroneously claims that later versions of the Septuagint say “kurios” while the original Septuagint did not. Let…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 9 months ago
Quote TO ALL:The name “YHWH” indeed translates into “kurios” ALWAYS! –KangarooIsaiah 1:18, and WJ, can one of you please talk to Kangaroo. Is 1:18 and WJ, do either of you believe that:””YHWH”…translates into “Kurios” ALWAYS!” ?
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
SF, I'm still laughing about that. I can just see you saying: “Really, David……Really?”
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
SF, now that I read it, as you would, not knowing who it was meant for, it's actually kind of funny. It seems like I'm jumping on you for missing a couple scriptures. Again, sorry for not using names.
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
SF, I was actually speaking about Kangaroo Jack. To me, it is obvious that angels are called “sons of God” in several places. Jack seemed unaware of this.I was actually agreeing with you. Sorry that I didn't make that more clear and sorry for the misunderstanding. I can see how vague I was.david
david replied to the topic Jesus was sent. in the forum Truth or Tradition 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote But she takes away from the fact Jesus also came on His own initiative. –Kangaroooo Jackhttps://www.heavennet.net/cgi-bin….t=3128;”Also, I have not come of my own initiative, but he that sent me is real. . . .” (John 7:28)“Most truly I say to YOU, The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the F…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Jesus was sent. in the forum Truth or Tradition 15 years, 10 months ago
OK, I thought I should actually look up the scriptures where we are told Jesus is sent:JOHN 3:17“For God sent forth his Son into the world, not for him to judge the world, but for the world to be saved through him.”JOHN 3:34“For the one whom God sent forth speaks the sayings of God, for he does not give the spirit by measure.”JOHN 4:34“Je…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Jesus was sent. in the forum Truth or Tradition 15 years, 10 months ago
As a side point, Phil 2: 8 says that Jesus was “obedient” as far as death. He was obeying God's will. Over and over again, Jesus said that he came to do his Father's will and not that of his own.He was obedient to his Father, who sent him to do his will. Of course, as Phil 2:5-8 show, Jesus humbly emptied himself and took on a human form. But…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
The name YHWH translates into the new testament as “kurios” (Lord).–KJI'd like to go back to this comment, because it is absurdly wrong.Instead of me just saying it's wrong, I want WJ, or Isaiah 1:18 or any trinitarian to tell him how obviously wrong he is. (He does point out that later Septuagint's substituted “Lord” as many Bibles do…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote t8,You are ignoring what you want to ignore. In the old testament the Husband was God. Jesus is our Husband. Ergo….Jehovah was ISRAEL'S husbandly owner.(Jer 3:14)Jesus Christ is viewed as the Husband of the Christian congregation. (Eph 5:22, 23; Re 19:7; 21:2)
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
I don't really understand this discussion of the word “lord.”It is a word that means “master” and it is used quite commonly in the Bible, about 1200 times, and very roughly about 700 of those times are in the Hebrew Scriptures and about 500 in the Greek.The phrase “Lord Jehovah” or “Lord YHWH” occurs about 320 times.It's just a word that means…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote (SimplyForgiven @ May 26 2010,05:48)Quote (Kangaroo Jack @ May 26 2010,03:21)David:Quote You know, the angels are also called “sons” of God.Angels are not called sons of God anywhere in the Bible. You are probably referring to Genesis 6 where it says that the sons of God intermarried with the daughters of men. The “sons of God” were of the…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote I looked and saw no reference to pronouns or specifically the pronoun “ekeinos” in reference to the Holy Spirit. Give me a heading so I don't have to read your entire treatise.So you didn't read it did you? Why do you argue with me when you don't even know why I believe what I believe? Are you afraid of what you will learn if you look at…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
This is BRILLIANT. I LOVE IT. Kangaroo Jack, (formerly, Thinker, but no more,) asked me:“How does a non person “testify” of someone?”He asked me this because God's holy spirit (a non person) is said to “testify.”So, the question, again is, how does a non person testify of someone?I was able to get Jack to come up with an answer himself:Quote The…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote 1 Corinthians 15:28 “And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.”–SFSF, I think I know why trinitarians don't often quote this scripture, but often allude to it. (The Son again subjecting himself to God.) SF, do you take this…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote DavidI bumped this post because it answers the God in you question. You didn't respond to it, why?–WJI didn't respond to it the first time, because I had no idea which question was referred to. This time, as you can read, I asked which scripture and SF doesn't seem to know. It's the God is all in all scripture, but no one can seem to find…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote Keith,David is touchy because his arguments are weak.btw, Has David answered the point that Jesus used the personal pronoun “ekeinos” in reference to the Spirit when He said “He (ekeinos) shall testify of Me” (John 14:26)?I don't quite remember where that point was brought up.–ThinkerYes, I have. But I don't think you read my posts,…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote “How does a non person “testify” of someone?”–thinkerMy response which undeniably shows his thinking is false:Quote Are “The Blood” and “The Water” persons? Yet, they are said to testify or to bear witness. And they are in agreement. Are they persons Thinker? What do you think? Is your logic sound? Do you use personification every…[Read more]
david replied to the topic Matthew 28:19–what does it prove? in the forum Scriptural Teachings 15 years, 10 months ago
Quote David argues that the angels were called “gods” and infers from this that that the name “god” in reference to Jesus is equivalent. But he ignores that the name “Son” in reference to Jesus is a name that is by far superior to the name “gods” in reference to angels (Heb. 1:1-6). Therefore, the name “god” as it is applied to angels is a much…[Read more]
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