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hi T8
“Therefore I say to you, any sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven people, but blasphemy against the Spirit shall not be forgiven. “Whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come.
I love this scripture;but many do not understand it ,for they do not understand that Jesus came down to do a demonstration of what God’s truth is and how we can benefit from it ,Jesus has kept saying “I TELL YOU THE TRUTH ” or “I AM THE TRUTH ” but at the same time he said “I CAME TO DO THE WILL OF MY FATHER ” and ” THE WORDS I SAY ARE THE WORDS MY FATHER HAS GIVEN ME ” and so on so then what his the “HOLY SPIRIT OR THE SPIRIT OF TRUTH ” ? OTHER THAN WHAT GOD’S WANTS AND SAYS IS GOD NOT THE SOURCE OF THE TRUTH ? YES HE IS AND WHO CAN STAND AGAINST THAT TRUTH ? ANYONE THAT FIGHT AGAINST IT WILL BE DESTROY BY IT ,for no one can have a will that would over power God’s will end of story ,so if you lie when the truth of God as been presented to you you really blaspheme that truth (rejected as truth) then tell me what is left to you to be save and live a everlasting life ?
Yes if you reject truth, then you are not of the truth. The truth remains when all lies eventually fall by the wayside.
Hi t8,
The truth is that Jesus is a man, a son of Adam and a natural son of God by conception and a spiritual son by anointing.
Nick..That is exactly right. If T8 could only come to see that, this site would yield much greater fruit. IMO
peace and love to you and yours. ……………gene
You both lack understanding if you think I teach otherwise. Show me where I teach the opposite.
“He existed in the form of God, emptied himself, came in the flesh, obeyed God, died, rose from the grave, was lifted up into Heaven at the right-side of God in the glory he had with God before the cosmos. This is what I teach now and since the conception of this website, even before that.”
Looking at what I said, does it say that Jesus was a man in heaven who came down? Does it say that Jesus wasn’t born of the flesh and anointed by the spirit?
Think about what people believe and teach before accusing them of believing and teaching something else. One of the commandments is to not bear false witness against thy neighbor. Am I your neighbor?
T8…..where you twist up scriptures is preaching JESUS PREEXISTED before his berth on this earth, THAT IS NOT AT ALL WHAT WE PREACH, you twist up what PAUL SAID. WHEN Paul referenced JESUS existing in the form (image) of GOD, emptied himself, (of his will), and OBEYED GOD, died and was raised and was lifted up to heaven, all was speaking of his “earthly” existence. JESUS certainly did come in the flesh exactly as we do, he came into existence at the time of his fleshely berth, You move that to make PAUL TALKING ABOUT, A JESUS WHO PREXISTED HIS BERTH ON THIS EARTH, IN THE FORM OF GOD, THAT IS NOT TRUE T8, Paul did not say that, only you and all those who believe in the false teaching of the trinity believe that. You have only came part way out, you are still holding on to some false teachings. IMO
I could say that about anyone who used to live on this earth , they also existed in the form (image) of GOD, WE who are alive now exist in the “form” of God right now. Or haven’t you read, “in the image of GOD CREATED HE THEM, MALE AND FEMALE CREATED HE THEM”. The word (image) is simply another word for form.
peace and love to you and yours. …………….gene
Hi,
God has visited His people
God is at work in you to will and to do.
The whole bible story is of the work of God in available and obedient people.
The flesh contributes nothing.
“He existed in the form of God, emptied himself, came in the flesh….”
Some interesting things I discovered while looking at that passage in Philippians 2 over the years:
- In verse 6, the Greek reads EN MORFEy ThEOU; and in verse 7 we see MORFEyN DOUDOU LABOhN. That part in verse 7 is often translated, “taking the form of a slave”, but since there’s no Greek article to represent “the” and the grammar doesn’t indicate it, it should be “taking a slave’s form.” Now, going back to verse 6, that part is often translated, “in the form of God”. There’s two problems with this. Once again, there’s no article for MORFEy (“form”). Also, there’s no article for ThEOU (god) showing that it’s referring to THE God. This being said, it appears that this should be “a god’s form”. Not convinced? Why is it that we translate “in the form of God” but not “the form of Slave”? It’s similar construction in the Greek, so my opinion is that we should either capitalize “slave” as I did, or more sensibly, the phrase in verse 6 should have “a god” instead of “God”. But let’s take this further. ThEOS is more correctly translated as “deity”, rather than “god”. So then verse 6, more accurately translated, should say “in deity’s form…” What I’m saying is that this part does not necessarily mean that Jesus was in the form of God Almighty.
- Let’s look at the next word in verse 6: EN MORFEy ThEOU hUPARKhOhN. This is normally translated as “being in the form of God.” The problem with this is that hUPARKhOhN doesn’t exactly mean “being”. There’s already a Greek word that means “being” and that’s OhN, the present participle of EIMI (“am”). hUPARKhOhn is the present participle of hUPARKhOh, which is a verb made of two other words: hUPO – “under”; and ARKhOMAI, which refers to precedence, as in being the first, the beginning, or highest rank. So then hUPARKhOh speaks of existing as a subordinate, being under a higher rank or something of importance; or even beginning under. It could refer to the continuance of a pre-existing condition. This word is used in Acts 27:21 where it suggests that Paul and those with him were being under the effects of a fast. In Luke 11:13, it suggests being under the influence of evil, not simply “being evil”. Interestingly, it can also carry a meaning of property, or perhaps more accurately belonging.
So ultimately what I’m saying is that this phrase does not mean to say that Jesus was and is God.
Oh, and as a side note:
It says that Jesus was in the form of God. Colossians 1:15 says that Jesus is the image of the invisible God, and Genesis 1:27 says that man (especially Adam) was created in his image. In I Corinthians 15, Paul refers to Jesus as “the second Adam”. I think Jesus is as much a part of God as Adam was.
Hi mst,
Not quite.
Read col 1 again and you will see spoken of
Jesus Christ
Christ Jesus
Christ
The Lord
but never
Jesus.
Do you get the importance of this?
Hi MStr,
Paul was anxious to ensure that when we think of the Son of God it is as the ANOINTED man.
Without that anointing he was a mere mortal capable only of doing what we can do.
That is what he meant when he wrote 2 cor 5.16
Hi,
2 cor 4.7
But we have this treasure in earthen vessels, that the surpassing greatness of the power may be of God and not from ourselves.
This applies also to Jesus of Nazareth
Well yes, Jesus was anointed by God, just as David was anointed as king over Israel. In the Old Testament, the Hebrew word MShYKh (Messiah) was applied to King David. And of course KrISTOS (Christ) is the Greek word that means the same thing. So Jesus is Christ just as David was Christ.
Of course there are differences between the two. For example, Jesus was a pre-existing spiritual being with God in the beginning who became manifest in the flesh on Earth. While David was a flawed human Christ who ruled as king, Jesus is the perfect Christ who rules as king, high priest, prophet, redeemer, mediator, and so on.
Hi mstr,
Jesus was a man who was conceived and born of woman and not named till later.
But you think this man somehow pre existed?
Perhaps you are confused between the human vessel and the Spirit that spoke through him?
Hi mstr,
Both Moses and Peter say that Jesus is the GREAT PROPHET- acts 3 22f
The Spirit of Christ resides in the prophets including Jesus- 1 peter 1.10f
God spoke through the prophets Heb 1.1 and Jesus told us God spoke through him.
If you say he pre-existed will you make that claim about all the prophets?
Hi mstr,
Do you think the anointing of David was restricted to his human kingship?
Do you not recognise the voice of the Spirit in the psalms?
Why the 3 posts? You asked several complicated questions at one time, as if I should spend my whole night researching and answering all your questions. Therefore, I will just give you quick answers.
As far as Jesus’s pre-existence, the Bible is a bit fuzzy on this. The synoptic gospels seem to indicate that Jesus had a fairly normal life up until the time that God spoke to him at his baptism and said “You are my son, the beloved; with you I am well pleased” (although John makes no mention of this and he was the only gospel writer to actually be there). We know that as a child, he had a fervor for the Scriptures and the teachers were amazed at his wisdom. But Paul’s letters make Jesus out to be more than the gospels ever cared to tell us. John is the only gospel writer (as far as I know) to say that Jesus existed with God in the beginning (John 1:1), and Paul is quite clear in his language that Jesus was in Heaven with God before he came to earth. His writings say multiple times that all things were created by God through Jesus.
You seem to be pointing out a gnostic idea, that Jesus was sort of like two beings in one, a spiritual self trapped inside a physical vessel. When I speak, I do so strictly from the Bible. I don’t speak in theory as if it’s truth.
To answer your question about the prophets, look in Luke 20:9-19. Here we see a parable about how God sent prophets to Israel over and over, yet each time Israel rejected them. God then sent his son, thinking they would listen to him; but instead they killed him. Jesus then says that because they reject the son, God will destroy Israel and set up others in their place. This indicates that Jesus is much more than just a prophet; he is the son of God. That was his claim, and that’s what his followers thought of him.
But David, being the Messiah of his time, was also referred to as being the son of God. But some Christians would rather think those passages are talking about Jesus even though David himself was not a prophet. If he were a prophet, why would he need Nathan to be his link to God? Heck, in Psalm 45, the Hebrew refers to David as Elohim, and we know it’s talking about David because it describes about his earthly court and his queen. Adam – David – Jesus: these three men are called sons of God, and all three were considered divine to some extent in their lives.
I think the answers to your questions can be found in the second chapter of Acts where Peter gives the full unadulterated gospel message to a crowd while under the influence of the holy spirit. Pay very close attention to the things he says. None of it indicates that Jesus was a mere prophet or equal to David.
mstrainjr,
John is the only gospel writer (as far as I know) to say that Jesus existed with God in the beginning (John 1:1)
Catholics and their decedents teach that the word in John 1:1 is an alternative title for Jesus but that is not true. Instead the word is literally the word that comes from God’s mouth and so was with him in the beginning of creation for he spoke it and it did return to him until it accomplished the goal of creating all things that have been created.
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