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For brother Thinker,
Here is some explanation on the difference between LORD God and Lord Jesus the Messiah.“THE LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.” This is the translation of Psalm 110:1 according to the King James Version. Who is “the LORD” here, and to whom is he speaking?
A more accurate translation of the Hebrew text quickly answers the first question. “The utterance of Jehovah to my Lord is: . . . ” Thus, “LORD” in capital letters refers to the almighty God, Jehovah himself. Although the King James Version acknowledges the divine name by using “LORD” as opposed to “Lord,” it was not the first to confuse these titles, for the ancient Greek Septuagint, translated from the Hebrew, used “Lord” for Jehovah in its later copies. Why? Because the title “Lord” was substituted for the divine name, the Tetragrammaton .)יהוה (YHWH)(Says scholar A. E. Garvie: “Use of the title Lord [ky′ri‧os] is most easily and probably explained from the use of that title in the Jewish synagogue instead of the covenant name Yahveh [Jehovah], when the Scriptures were being read.”
The Bible identifies Jehovah as the “Sovereign Lord.” (Genesis 15:2, 8; Acts 4:24; Revelation 6:10) He is also called “the true Lord” and “the Lord of the whole earth.” (Exodus 23:17; Joshua 3:13; Revelation 11:4) Who, then, is the other “Lord” of Psalm 110:1, and how did he come to be recognized as “Lord” by Jehovah?Distinguishing Jesus Christ as Lord—Some renderings of the Christian Greek Scriptures present a problem when translating quotations from the Hebrew Scriptures that clearly refer to the “LORD,” Jehovah God. Compare, for example, Luke 4:19 with Isaiah 61:2 in either the King James Version or The New Jerusalem Bible. Some people maintain that Jesus took over the title “Lord” from Jehovah and that Jesus in the flesh was really Jehovah, but this is a contention for which there is no Scriptural support. Jehovah God and his Son, Jesus Christ, are always carefully distinguished from each other in Scripture. Jesus made known his Father’s name and represented him.—John 5:36, 37.
In the following examples, note the quotations from the Hebrew Scriptures as they appear in the Greek Scriptures. Jehovah God and his Anointed One, or Messiah, are both mentioned at Acts 4:24-27, which quotes from Psalm 2:1, 2. The context of Romans 11:33, 34 is clearly referring to God, Source of all wisdom and knowledge, with a quotation from Isaiah 40:13, 14. Writing to the Corinthian congregation, Paul repeats the quotation, “Who has come to know the mind of Jehovah?” and then adds: “But we do have the mind of Christ.” The Lord Jesus revealed to his followers Jehovah’s mind on so many important matters.—1 Corinthians 2:16.
Sometimes a text in the Hebrew Scriptures refers to Jehovah, but by virtue of His delegation of power and authority, it is fulfilled in Jesus Christ. Psalm 34:8, for example, invites us to “taste and see that Jehovah is good.” But Peter applies this to the Lord Jesus Christ when he says: “Provided you have tasted that the Lord is kind.” (1 Peter 2:3) Peter takes a principle and shows how it is true also of Jesus Christ. By taking in knowledge of both Jehovah God and Jesus Christ and acting upon it, Christians can enjoy rich blessings from both the Father and his Son. (John 17:3) Peter’s application does not make the Sovereign Lord Jehovah one person with the Lord Jesus Christ. The relative positions of Jehovah God and his Son, Jesus Christ, are made very clear by the apostle Paul when he says: “There is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him.” (1 Corinthians 8:6; 12:5, 6) Writing to the Christian congregation in Ephesus, Paul identified the “one Lord,” Jesus Christ, as being quite distinct from the “one God and Father of all persons.”—Ephesians 4:5, 6.
Since the year 1914, the words of Revelation 11:15 have proved true: “The kingdom of the world did become the kingdom of our Lord [Jehovah God] and of his Christ, and he will rule as king forever and ever.” The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology (Volume 2, page 514) says: “When Christ has overcome every power (1 Cor. 15:25), he will submit himself to God the Father. Thus Jesus’ lordship will have achieved its goal and God will be all in all (1 Cor. 15:28).” At the end of his Millennial Reign, Christ Jesus hands back to his Father, Almighty God, the power and authority previously delegated to him. Hence, all glory and worship are rightly given to Jehovah, “the God of our Lord Jesus Christ.”—Ephesians 1:17.Although Jesus is now Lord of lords, he is never called God of gods. Jehovah remains supreme over all. In this way, Jehovah will be “all things to everyone.” (1 Corinthians 15:28)
Peace to you
AdamAdam………..Amen brother, you have correctly stated and answered the question.
peace and love to you and yours……………………………………………gene
Quote (gollamudi @ April 20 2009,20:05) “THE LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.” This is the translation of Psalm 110:1 according to the King James Version. Who is “the LORD” here, and to whom is he speaking? A more accurate translation of the Hebrew text quickly answers the first question. “The utterance of Jehovah to my Lord is: . . . ” Thus, “LORD” in capital letters refers to the almighty God, Jehovah himself. Although the King James Version acknowledges the divine name by using “LORD” as opposed to “Lord,” it was not the first to confuse these titles, for the ancient Greek Septuagint, translated from the Hebrew, used “Lord” for Jehovah in its later copies.
GM
Why don't you list the source of your post? This is called plagiarism which means…
plagiarized
: to steal and pass off (the ideas or words of another) as one's own : use (another's production) without crediting the source
I do not see you showing us where the source of your post is from or even admitting they are not your words. If you do not know how to copy and paste the source at least you could let us know that these are not your own words.
Please give us the information from where you get your quotes so we can check the source out for ourselves.
You can copy and paste the web page into the post.
This is where you got your info…
WJ
gollumandi posted:
Quote Hi brother,
So what?
Do you mean “Lord” means God in that case?
If so you make two Gods in your Bible; One Father and other Jesus.Greetings g,
Is Jesus YOUR “Lord”? Do you bow YOUR knee to Him? If you say “Yes” then you believe that Jesus is “Lord” in the higher case and you have two “Lords.” Why is having two Lords better then having two Gods? Please explain?thinker
gollumandi posted:
Quote The Bible identifies Jehovah as the “Sovereign Lord.” (Genesis 15:2, 8; Acts 4:24; Revelation 6:10) He is also called “the true Lord” and “the Lord of the whole earth.” (Exodus 23:17; Joshua 3:13; Revelation 11:4) Who, then, is the other “Lord” of Psalm 110:1, and how did he come to be recognized as “Lord” by Jehovah? g,
Thank you for this information. Your source is correct in saying that Jehovah means “Sovereign Lord.” Please consider Isaiah with the New Testament,Quote Thus says Jehovah, the King of Israel, and his blood relative, Jehovah of hosts, “I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is no God” (Isaiah 44;6)
Jehovah, the “Sovereign Lord” made three claims about Himself,
1. King of Israel
2. Israel's blood-relative
3. The First and the Last.The New Testament makes these three claims about Jesus,
1. Jesus is the King of Israel (John 12)
2. Jesus is Israel's blood-relative (Rom. 1:3)
3. Jesus is the First and the Last (Rev. 1:8, 17; 22:13)Ergo, Jesus is YOUR “Sovereign Lord” (Philippians 2).
thinker
Resolved Question
What Is The Difference Between God And The Lord?
My RS Homework,Since you knew about the source WJ, why didn't you share the information with us?
Georg
Hi tT,
Still confused how the Son can have given roles similar to those of his Father and God?
Get over it.
He was given all power in heaven and on earth.Mt28
18And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.The Thinker:
Quote Yeap! Please explain your problem with it.
That is an Adoptionist argument and I did not think you were an Adomptionist. I say that since Jesus must have been non-God in order to be appointed God just like a person is not a U.S. Supreme Court Justice before the President appoints them one.
That interpretation states there are at least two Gods one natural and one appointed.
That interpretation either states David was also appointed God, though with a smaller kingdom, or that Jesus is not sitting on the seat of David because when David was seated on his own throne he also was made Lord of God’s people.
That is what I can think of when thinking it through a little.
Quote (Cindy @ April 21 2009,05:43) Resolved Question
What Is The Difference Between God And The Lord?
My RS Homework,Since you knew about the source WJ, why didn't you share the information with us?
Georg
Hi GeorgeI did!
Look again!
WJ
Quote (kerwin @ April 21 2009,08:25) The Thinker: Quote Yeap! Please explain your problem with it.
That is an Adoptionist argument and I did not think you were an Adomptionist. I say that since Jesus must have been non-God in order to be appointed God just like a person is not a U.S. Supreme Court Justice before the President appoints them one.
That interpretation states there are at least two Gods one natural and one appointed.
That interpretation either states David was also appointed God, though with a smaller kingdom, or that Jesus is not sitting on the seat of David because when David was seated on his own throne he also was made Lord of God’s people.
That is what I can think of when thinking it through a little.
Greetings Kerwin,
David was a type or shadow of Christ and was therefore “God” by appointment alone. Jesus is God is both by nature and by appointment.Quote All things were created by Him and FOR Him (Colossians 1:17) thinker
thinker…..Isa 44:6 Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of Hosts I am the first and I am the last; besides me there is (NO) God.
This should answer your question if there are any other GOD'S. What is said here is the LORD the KING of Israel is (also) the LORD of Hosts His (Israels) redeemer. There is no mention of two LORDS at all here it's the Same LORD, who is both King and Redeemer. Your using the word (and) to represent two LORDS when in fact it is referencing the same being. IMO
Also a kinsman redeemer does not have to a blood relative as you assert, If you were a man married into another family as a son in law for instance you still are considered a member of the family and could redeem also. I don't recall where it says He must be a blood relative. I could be wrong but i don't recall it.
peace and love to you and yours……………………………..gene
Quote (epistemaniac @ Sep. 01 2008,03:23) “False Dilemma Definition:
A limited number of options (usually two) is given, while in reality there are more options. A false dilemma is an illegitimate use of the “or” operator.
Putting issues or opinions into “black or white” terms is a common instance of this fallacy.
Examples:
1. Either you're for me or against me.
2. America: love it or leave it.
3. Either support Meech Lake or Quebec will separate.
4. Every person is either wholly good or wholly evil.Proof:
Identify the options given and show (with an example) that there is an additional option.
References
Cedarblom and Paulsen: 136″ (http://www.onegoodmove.org/fallacy/fd.htm)
The title of this section of the Forum is a bit misleading and violates this informal rule in logic, it is not necessarily the case that Tradition is specifically contrary to Scripture. Of course tradition CAN be contrary to Scripture…. BUT…. it does not NECESSARILY HAVE TO BE…… and that's what the title of this section of the forum certainly implies, that Scripture and Tradition are necessarily mutually exclusive of one another, and plainly, simply, this is not the case.
This false dichotomy is also, I believe, an example of the version of the ad hominem argument, Poisoning the Well http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poisoning_the_well. This is because the way the section of the Forum puts it, as if something is EITHER Scripture or Tradition, that if it is Tradition, it can't be Scriptural. This is Poisoning the Well, making people … a priori…. think that if something is “Tradition” it can't be Scriptural as well.
Just thought it was important to point this out.
blessings,
Ken
I have to say here that you called the title truth or tradition a False dilemma and that is incorrect.You are assuming that the intent was to exclude one and it is not because certainly a truth can also “be” a tradition.
The question seems to be posited in such a way that it is pleading for the input of what is “truth” and what is “tradition” so you are incorrect about it being set up as a false dillemma
In regards to poisoning the well, that is actually what you just did by assuming that the section was implying “either” instead of “what is”
I understood it to mean what is “truth or tradition”
Even if that was not its intent that's the way I understood it and perhaps others did as well.
Hi brother Gene,
You have explained it in a better way that God is only One there is no other God besides Him. People are often confused with the word “Lord/Kyrios”. It can mean differently when we see the context. It can be the name of the God(YHWH) as often translated as “LORD” or my Lord to lesser beings who are in authority. Jesus is Lord because he has been given authority over this creation by our LORD God. It doesn't make him another God because of this title. We have to understand God and Jesus through the eyes of Jewish Monotheism otherwise we make God of the Bible as Poly.Coming to WJ's query on the source of my quote; it is not required as long as we are debating on the topic. I am not claming for the rights on the material but as I agree with the subject I often quote as it is. I don't want people to go and see the source and be biased by the website or that organisation. Therefore I don't mention the source. We are all open to debate on anything we quote here so he need not worry about the source.
Peace and love to you
AdamQuote (gollamudi @ April 21 2009,17:02) Hi brother Gene,
You have explained it in a better way that God is only One there is no other God besides Him. People are often confused with the word “Lord/Kyrios”. It can mean differently when we see the context. It can be the name of the God(YHWH) as often translated as “LORD” or my Lord to lesser beings who are in authority. Jesus is Lord because he has been given authority over this creation by our LORD God. It doesn't make him another God because of this title. We have to understand God and Jesus through the eyes of Jewish Monotheism otherwise we make God of the Bible as Poly.Coming to WJ's query on the source of my quote; it is not required as long as we are debating on the topic. I am not claming for the rights on the material but as I agree with the subject I often quote as it is. I don't want people to go and see the source and be biased by the website or that organisation. Therefore I don't mention the source. We are all open to debate on anything we quote here so he need not worry about the source.
Peace and love to you
Adam
GMThats wrong!
As you can see I found the source. So what difference does it make to mention that it is not your own words.
To post something that is not your own words and giving the impression that it is your words, is dishonest. I hope you can see that.
WJ
No brother WJ,
I don't agree with you. If I agree with somebody's words I am at liberty to borrow it and post. I don't think if somebody writes it or by myself write it, once it is available on the net there is no problem at all. Even I can also write the samething only due to time constraint I copy and post it. Once it is posted I am liable for debate isn't it, but not the other person as you assume.Thanks and peace to you
Adam
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