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- March 13, 2014 at 11:13 am#373352ProclaimerParticipant
Moved to Truth or Tradition because this appears to no longer be a debate between set people.
March 13, 2014 at 11:25 am#373353ProclaimerParticipantKJ, you are back. Can we finish this debate?
https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….;st=360March 13, 2014 at 6:10 pm#373370kerwinParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Mar. 12 2014,10:37) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 12 2014,05:34) Quote (kerwin @ Mar. 11 2014,12:54) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 09 2014,23:41)
Consider the King of Abyssinia, who also has a spokesman called “The Word”. Tell me if “the word” means the same thing in both of the following examples:1. The Word of the King showed up late to work Saturday, so the king had to speak directly to some of his subjects.
2. By the word of the king, the opposing nation was invaded.
Can you see that the phrase “the word” means different things in the two examples? Would you ever use #2 to prove that #1 doesn't refer to a living, breathing BEING? Would you ever use #2 to prove that the Word and the King from #1 are the same, identical person or being?
Mike,I do not see as you are getting the agent to primary relationship in those cases the agent acts according to the primary's commands.
Kerwin,You cannot say “God is love as the Word is flesh”.
You can say “God is love as flesh is the Word”.
Or you can say, “Love is God as the Word is flesh”.
If you can't see this, then just do me a favor and stop using the “God is love” comparison altogether, okay?
In the meantime, please address the part I left in the quote box above.
Mike,I would like to go through it all but it will take time for me to study and that seems to be in short supply of late.
Mike,Why would I stop using a comparison if I do see things as you see them?
March 13, 2014 at 7:43 pm#373371NickHassanParticipantHi,
The Word was God kills the thought of two sentient beings.March 13, 2014 at 9:32 pm#373388mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Nick Hassan @ Mar. 12 2014,19:08) Hi MB
Since your questions must have precedence
“Do you believe that the entire being of God Almighty became flesh and dwelled on earth”That is a bit silly considering God was in heaven
” …with the glory of His own only begotten Son?” ??
Finally!Yes Nick, if I ask the question FIRST, then that question takes precedence over any question you ask LATER. Does that not make sense to you?
Quote Quote (mikeboll @ 64) Do you believe that the entire being of God Almighty became flesh and dwelled on earth?
That is a bit silly considering God was in heaven” …with the glory of His own only begotten Son?” ??
So then your DIRECT answer is “NO Mike.” Thank you for your answer, Nick…….. I agree with it.So how then do you reconcile your claim that the Word was indeed God Himself with the teaching that this same Word DID become flesh and dwell on earth with the glory of God's only begotten Son?
Do you see my point now? If the Word was truly “God” – like the flawed translation you believe says, then it was also truly “God” who became flesh and dwelled on earth with the glory of God's only begotten Son.
And since that end result is “a bit silly”, according to both of us, perhaps the Word who became flesh WASN'T actually “God Himself” – like that flawed and nonsensical translation of John 1:1 leads people to believe.
What say you?
March 13, 2014 at 9:39 pm#373390mikeboll64BlockedQuote (t8 @ Mar. 13 2014,05:12) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Mar. 12 2014,05:03) So the question can be “Can Adam himself be with Adam himself?” The answer is Yes!
“Can adam himself be with Adam himself? Yes. A man can be with THE Man.
Just like A god was with THE God in the beginning?t8, your use of the indefinite article in your example just supported the very thing I preach. So thanks for the support!
March 13, 2014 at 9:43 pm#373391mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Mar. 13 2014,12:10) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 09 2014,23:41)
Consider the King of Abyssinia, who also has a spokesman called “The Word”. Tell me if “the word” means the same thing in both of the following examples:1. The Word of the King showed up late to work Saturday, so the king had to speak directly to some of his subjects.
2. By the word of the king, the opposing nation was invaded.
Can you see that the phrase “the word” means different things in the two examples? Would you ever use #2 to prove that #1 doesn't refer to a living, breathing BEING? Would you ever use #2 to prove that the Word and the King from #1 are the same, identical person or being?
Mike,Why would I stop using a comparison if I do see things as you see them?
Kerwin,Please address the part in the quote box above. This is the third time I've had to post those questions.
March 13, 2014 at 9:49 pm#373393NickHassanParticipantHI MB,
One God
One Spirit.
Start from thereMarch 13, 2014 at 11:06 pm#373403kerwinParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 14 2014,03:43) Quote (kerwin @ Mar. 13 2014,12:10) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 09 2014,23:41)
Consider the King of Abyssinia, who also has a spokesman called “The Word”. Tell me if “the word” means the same thing in both of the following examples:1. The Word of the King showed up late to work Saturday, so the king had to speak directly to some of his subjects.
2. By the word of the king, the opposing nation was invaded.
Can you see that the phrase “the word” means different things in the two examples? Would you ever use #2 to prove that #1 doesn't refer to a living, breathing BEING? Would you ever use #2 to prove that the Word and the King from #1 are the same, identical person or being?
Mike,Why would I stop using a comparison if I do see things as you see them?
Kerwin,Please address the part in the quote box above. This is the third time I've had to post those questions.
Mike,Is the Word acting as the kings agent when he shows up late? Not unless the king ordered him to do it.
The word acting as an agent of the king ordered the king's servant to show up on time. The king ordered using his agent the word ordered the king's servants to show up on time. These can shortened up to be the word ordered the king's servants to show up on time and the king ordered the king's servants to show up on time.
The king invaded the opposing nation is equivalent to the king's armies invaded the opposing nation as the armies serve as the king's proxy for the purpose of invading the opposing nation. If they act on their own then they are not the king's proxy.
In neither 1 or 2 does the subject serve as a proxy for the king.
Another proxy situation for 2 would be the word of the king ordered the troops to invade the opposing nation as it can also be said the king ordered the troops to invade the opposing nation.
I might be mistaken about 2 not being a proxy.
Note: Some say George Bush invaded Iraq.
March 13, 2014 at 11:08 pm#373404kerwinParticipantMike,
I am more busy that usual and in the best of times I miss things so please have patience with my weaknesses.
March 13, 2014 at 11:24 pm#373407mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Nick Hassan @ Mar. 13 2014,15:49) HI MB,
One God
One Spirit.
Start from there
Okay Nick. So WHO exactly became flesh and dwelled on earth with the glory of God's only begotten Son?God Himself? The Spirit of God? Who BECAME a flesh being? Scripture says it was “the Word” who did this.
Who do YOU say became flesh?
March 13, 2014 at 11:27 pm#373408mikeboll64BlockedBtw Nick,
That was a very poor excuse of an “answer” to the things I laid out for you in that previous post.
Why not try to DIRECTLY ADDRESS the fact that if the Word was truly “God”, and the Word is who became flesh, then there is no choice but for “God” to be the one who became flesh and dwelled on earth with the glory of God's only begotten Son.
March 13, 2014 at 11:31 pm#373409mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Mar. 13 2014,17:06) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 14 2014,03:43) Quote (kerwin @ Mar. 13 2014,12:10) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Mar. 09 2014,23:41)
Consider the King of Abyssinia, who also has a spokesman called “The Word”. Tell me if “the word” means the same thing in both of the following examples:1. The Word of the King showed up late to work Saturday, so the king had to speak directly to some of his subjects.
2. By the word of the king, the opposing nation was invaded.
1. Can you see that the phrase “the word” means different things in the two examples?
2. Would you ever use #2 to prove that #1 doesn't refer to a living, breathing BEING?
3. Would you ever use #2 to prove that the Word and the King from #1 are the same, identical person or being?
Mike,Why would I stop using a comparison if I do see things as you see them?
Kerwin,Please address the part in the quote box above. This is the third time I've had to post those questions.
Mike,Is the Word acting as the kings agent when he shows up late? Not unless the king ordered him to do it.
The word acting as an agent of the king ordered the king's servant to show up on time. The king ordered using his agent the word ordered the king's servants to show up on time. These can shortened up to be the word ordered the king's servants to show up on time and the king ordered the king's servants to show up on time.
The king invaded the opposing nation is equivalent to the king's armies invaded the opposing nation as the armies serve as the king's proxy for the purpose of invading the opposing nation. If they act on their own then they are not the king's proxy.
In neither 1 or 2 does the subject serve as a proxy for the king.
Another proxy situation for 2 would be the word of the king ordered the troops to invade the opposing nation as it can also be said the king ordered the troops to invade the opposing nation.
I might be mistaken about 2 not being a proxy.
Note: Some say George Bush invaded Iraq.
Here Kerwin,I've made the question part of it really big and bold, so you can now see it.
Please answer the three questions with DIRECT answers. Thank you.
March 13, 2014 at 11:57 pm#373414NickHassanParticipantHi MB,
“The Word was made flesh and dwelled among us and we have seen his glory. The glory of an only begotten coming from the Father”The Word that was with God and was God, one with and in the Spirit of God.
March 13, 2014 at 11:58 pm#373415NickHassanParticipantHi MB,
TRULY GOD
What does that mean?God was not made flesh but the Word was.
In Christ Jesus God visited His people.March 14, 2014 at 12:13 am#373420NickHassanParticipantHi MB,
While God spoke from the heavens He also spoke through His Son [jn 2.19]and can speak through us[mt 10.20]
By His Spirit of courseThe same Spirit can help us pray TO God. [rom 8.26]
We should not try to put the Spirit of God in a theological box
March 14, 2014 at 12:36 am#373425mikeboll64BlockedNick,
Please DIRECTLY answer the first post on this page. (Hmmmm…….. where have we heard that before?)
March 14, 2014 at 12:39 am#373427NickHassanParticipantHi MB.
The Word became flesh
Would you like additions to this verse to fit with logic?March 14, 2014 at 12:44 am#373428NickHassanParticipantHi MB,
You ask
“So WHO exactly became flesh and dwelled on earth with the glory of God's only begotten Son?”You imply the WHO is a person, a sentient being.
Scripture does not say so, so it is not a good idea to presume so.March 14, 2014 at 2:47 am#373438WakeupParticipantMike's logic:
If God's Word is speaking on earth;how can Gods Word be also in heaven.This does not make any sense to him.
God should be in one place at a time. And His Word should be the same. God can not have His Word,without being another God.His Word has to be *another* God.Hello; my word is not another person. It is my word;my speech.
My question: If God is in heaven;how can he also speak to many through His holy spirit?
How can Jesus also be IN many at once?This to Mike is nonsense;gibberish talk.
Mike's concept of thinking is influenced by mens thinking,
which are his rabbi masters.
They also are still in confusion.So confusion leads to confusion.Man's wisdom is foolishness to God.wakeup.
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