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Mike: PROCLAIMER, DOES THE PLURAL WORD “DAYS” EVER REFER TO ANYTHING OTHER THAN LITERAL DAYS IN THE BIBLE? YES OR NO? AND IF YES, SHOW THE SCRIPTURE(S) IN WHICH IT IS EXPLICITLY AND UNDENIABLY MADE ABUNDANTLY CLEAR THAT THESE DAYS ARE INDEED SOMETHING OTHER THAN LITERAL DAYS.
The first time I asked it, you ignored it.
The second time I asked it, you answered, “Not sure. I could research it, but I honestly am not sure.”
Pretender: I don’t know, but it doesn’t matter.
It DOES matter. And more importantly, it is a MUST ANSWER question that I’ve asked 3 times now – the first of which was MONTHS ago. You’ve had plenty of time to do a search and discover that the answer is a definitive NO. In fact, I didn’t even have to limit it to the Bible, because there is NO instance in the history of the world where the plural word “days” has EVER been used idiomatically to refer to an unspecified general period of time.
That means when God Himself not only says that He created heaven and earth in six days, but goes even farther by also explicitly EQUATING those six days with the six days the Israelites were to work before taking a day of rest, God was talking about six LITERAL days.
Bottom line: God created the heaven, the earth, the sea, and everything in them in six literal days. End of story.
You have lost the debate, and I am no longer interested in further discussion with someone who has proven himself to be a liar and a fool.
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