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Quote (942767 @ April 16 2010,09:21) John 3:13And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven,even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Why does ascend's meaning remain intact, yet 'came down' doesn't in your theology?It appears on the outset that ascend and descend or up and down are the meanings being conveyed. It does seem suspicious when a theology requires that one of the meanings is taken at face value, while the other is not.
Quote (t8 @ April 17 2010,14:23) Quote (942767 @ April 16 2010,09:21) John 3:13And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven,even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Why does ascend's meaning remain intact, yet 'came down' doesn't in your theology?It appears on the outset that ascend and descend or up and down are the meanings being conveyed. It does seem suspicious when a theology requires that one of the meanings is taken at face value, while the other is not.
Hi t8:What do you mean that according to my theology, descending does not remain intact. We know that he did not exist in the beginning as the Son of Man, and yet he indicates he is going where he was before, and he indicates that while on being on earth he is at the same time in heaven.
In these verses of scripture Jesus is speaking of the Word of God which has come down from heaven. The spirit of Christ existed in the heart of God from the beginning, and that is what I am showing you through these scriptures.
It isn't my theology, All I have done is quoted scripture, and I indicated that Jesus was speaking of the Word of God. Do you agree or not? I have given my understanding.
Also, the following scripture supports this as well:
Quote
Hebrews 10:5 (King James Version)5Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:
What in your judgment is he saying when he says “a body thou has prepared ME
By this scripture we know that the body did not exist until Jesus was born of the virgin Mary. That is my conclusion and I believe that the Word of God supports this. Do you agree or not?
Why don't you just tell me what you believe that these scriptures indicate to you instead of trying to find fault with my theology.
If you are wrong about Jesus pre-existing as a sentient person, do you want to be corrected so that you can preach the truth or do you want to continue in your error?
Love in Christ,
MartyQuote (t8 @ April 17 2010,14:23) Quote (942767 @ April 16 2010,09:21) John 3:13And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven,even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Why does ascend's meaning remain intact, yet 'came down' doesn't in your theology?It appears on the outset that ascend and descend or up and down are the meanings being conveyed. It does seem suspicious when a theology requires that one of the meanings is taken at face value, while the other is not.
Hi brother T8,
I do now accept the paradox of N.T in narrating Jesus' origins. Indeed it talks about Jesus' alleged preexistence in heaven prior to his earthly life. It is nothing but a mythology created by Christian writers to prove Jesus' nonhuman origins. It makes Jesus more than a man even a god or godman. Jewish scriptures never intended such mythology about their Messiah who was to be pure human Messiah not a god or godman.Peace to you
AdamPeople,
Just passing through here.Why is it unacceptable to believe that Jesus could have been preexistent in heaven and yet pure man on earth?
Jesus, to be, in heaven, was a perfect Servant of God who proved himself worthy to be the ultimate blood sacrifice to God in exchange for the remission of [the original sin of the first Adam, the first man] and the [offer of] salvation to the whole of mankind.
Jesus, to be, EMPTIED himself of ALL divinity and was born 100% HUMAN, 100% MAN, as the first Adam was 100% HUMAN, 100% MAN.
Jesus was born supernaturally by the Holy Spirit, just as Adam was born supernaturally by the Holy Spirit.
Why is this not acceptable.
It is only mainstream Christianity, particularly those professing belief in the doctrine of the Trinity, that keep calling Jesus 'God' while straining to find Scriptural support for their misguided doctrine brought about by the very enemy of God, he, whom is embodied in Abomination that was the Roman nation and is now the Roman Catholic Church, and it's offsprings.
Jesus, while on earth, attributed all his deeds to faith, prayer, belief and the oneness, the unity, of himself, to the power of the Holy Spirit of his Father.
Indeed, he said that we could do the same if we also believed (faith will move mountains, Peter had faith for a moment and walked on the water.
Prayer, Jesus always prayed before committing miracles, the disciples failed to heal one person by their limited gift of the Holy Spirit and Jesus told them, 'Only Prayer can remove these'…)Because Jesus performed miracles in the sight of men, raised the dead, healed the sick, forgave sins, the Jews became confused, some calling him 'Elijah'(Remember that Elijah also raised the dead, healed the sick and forgave sin!…ok, last not sure about, please check this for me), they also though he was claiming to be 'God' by virtue of their father-son relationship that a 'firstborn son' was 'equal' to his father.
Note this particularly, 'Equal to God'. The meaning does NOT say, 'he IS God', like Trinitarians like to use to claim Jesus as Deity, it say 'equal to'. Satan wanted to be 'equal to God'. Now, how can there be More than One GOD? only by wrongful thinking of what [a] GOD is?A God is THE Supreme being, one with Ultimate Power and Authority. Only One such being can exist as head of ALL and that is Jehovah God, the 'I AM', YHVH.
There are many others who are supreme in their own order: A high priest us supreme in the church, a king us supreme in his kingdom, a man is supreme in his household (but don't tell the wife!)…more…
These, then, are 'gods' but to safeguard the use of the word 'God' it is not used un everyday language.So, Jesus says, 'I am the Son of God, why do you say I blaspheme, for if HE called them 'gods' unto whom the word of God came…' what did this mean. That man is 'god' so what if I say I am the son of God??
In fact, note that Jesus himself, never actually called himself 'Son of God'(please check this for me) but always said 'Son of Man'. He did not, however, deny the claim when spoken of by others.Therefore, at no time dies Jesus claim to be God, as Trinitarians claim. At no time does Jesus claim a threesome God unity as a single God unity, as Trinitarians claim.
What Jesus does claim is a spiritual unity of purpose with his Father (note that he did not add, the Holy Spirit because the Holy Spirit is the Spirit of God, the Father, NOT a seperate Person, as Trinitarians claim…in fact, even they can't justify the claim except by warped twisting of scriptural text).
This is the same unity that Jesus desires for all who have faith in him, in the revelation of his Father, which he brought from his Father. So, in this union, are we, then, also to be GOD, even Trinitarians baulk at claiming that. So how do they justify the first but deny the second when they are both the same unity that Jesus is implying?
The task, should you choose to accept it….
Quote (gollamudi @ April 19 2010,18:17) Quote (t8 @ April 17 2010,14:23) Quote (942767 @ April 16 2010,09:21) John 3:13And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven,even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Why does ascend's meaning remain intact, yet 'came down' doesn't in your theology?It appears on the outset that ascend and descend or up and down are the meanings being conveyed. It does seem suspicious when a theology requires that one of the meanings is taken at face value, while the other is not.
Hi brother T8,
I do now accept the paradox of N.T in narrating Jesus' origins. Indeed it talks about Jesus' alleged preexistence in heaven prior to his earthly life. It is nothing but a mythology created by Christian writers to prove Jesus' nonhuman origins. It makes Jesus more than a man even a god or godman. Jewish scriptures never intended such mythology about their Messiah who was to be pure human Messiah not a god or godman.Peace to you
Adam
Hi Gollamudi,“The Bible” isn't a result of the intentions of Jewish writers,
but (it's written) as the intention of YHVH himself! (Rev.21:3)Quote (JustAskin @ April 19 2010,20:00) People, …is Jehovah God, the 'I AM', YHVH.
So, Jesus says, 'I am the Son of God…
The task, should you choose to accept it….
Hi JustAskin,The task, should you choose to accept it…. is to explain this discrepancy you expect us to believe?
Quote (Ed J @ April 19 2010,21:13) Quote (gollamudi @ April 19 2010,18:17) Quote (t8 @ April 17 2010,14:23) Quote (942767 @ April 16 2010,09:21) John 3:13And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven,even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Why does ascend's meaning remain intact, yet 'came down' doesn't in your theology?It appears on the outset that ascend and descend or up and down are the meanings being conveyed. It does seem suspicious when a theology requires that one of the meanings is taken at face value, while the other is not.
Hi brother T8,
I do now accept the paradox of N.T in narrating Jesus' origins. Indeed it talks about Jesus' alleged preexistence in heaven prior to his earthly life. It is nothing but a mythology created by Christian writers to prove Jesus' nonhuman origins. It makes Jesus more than a man even a god or godman. Jewish scriptures never intended such mythology about their Messiah who was to be pure human Messiah not a god or godman.Peace to you
Adam
Hi Gollamudi,“The Bible” isn't a result of the intentions of Jewish writers,
but (it's written) as the intention of YHVH himself! (Rev.21:3)
But God never made so ambigous about His human Messiah except Christianity made it a mess in understanding Jesus' origins.Quote (gollamudi @ April 19 2010,22:46) Quote (Ed J @ April 19 2010,21:13) Quote (gollamudi @ April 19 2010,18:17) Quote (t8 @ April 17 2010,14:23) Quote (942767 @ April 16 2010,09:21) John 3:13And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven,even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Why does ascend's meaning remain intact, yet 'came down' doesn't in your theology?It appears on the outset that ascend and descend or up and down are the meanings being conveyed. It does seem suspicious when a theology requires that one of the meanings is taken at face value, while the other is not.
Hi brother T8,
I do now accept the paradox of N.T in narrating Jesus' origins. Indeed it talks about Jesus' alleged preexistence in heaven prior to his earthly life. It is nothing but a mythology created by Christian writers to prove Jesus' nonhuman origins. It makes Jesus more than a man even a god or godman. Jewish scriptures never intended such mythology about their Messiah who was to be pure human Messiah not a god or godman.Peace to you
Adam
Hi Gollamudi,“The Bible” isn't a result of the intentions of Jewish writers,
but (it's written) as the intention of YHVH himself! (Rev.21:3)
But God never made so ambigous about His human Messiah except Christianity made it a mess in understanding Jesus' origins.
Hi Gollamudi,What about the ambiguity you portray using the words of systems of religion?
The systems of religion and traditions of men communicate…
distortions of truth, confusion of mind, and distractions of spirit.“YHVH is GOD”=117
PSALM 117 is [The Bible's Center Chapter], the [smallest chapter] of the [LARGEST BOOK]!Witnessing to the world in behalf of… (Psalm 45:17)
117=יהוה האלהים(JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (AKJV Joshua 22:34 / Isaiah 60:13-15)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgEDJ,
I AM JustAskin. What am I? Are you a Pharasee? Have you becom a Trinitarian, too?In fact, are you challenging me? but yet, Not Me, but the Holy Spirit?
This is common English. God said His name is “YHVH” which equates to “I AM…” in today's vocabulary.
If you feel that this somehow wrong then please accept my apology – it was what I was taught.
You see you lambasted me for writing YHWH instead of YHVH and I accepted your correction.Thank you for that.
But yet, you are saying that anyone who says “I am” is calling themselves God.
Edj, I won't even bother to respond to that “Task”, although I already have…
Edj, as an apolgy for irresponsible posting I grant you the opportunity for recompense with some homework. Produce a full frank and God-Father-YHVH-Honest critique of the rest of what I wrote by tomorrow morning – or else you are in detention….!
And this is an offer that YOU CANNOT Refuse.Quote (JustAskin @ April 20 2010,02:52) EDJ,
I AM JustAskin. What am I? Are you a Pharasee? Have you becom a Trinitarian, too?In fact, are you challenging me? but yet, Not Me, but the Holy Spirit?
This is common English. God said His name is “YHVH” which equates to “I AM…” in today's vocabulary.
If you feel that this somehow wrong then please accept my apology – it was what I was taught.
You see you lambasted me for writing YHWH instead of YHVH and I accepted your correction.Thank you for that.
But yet, you are saying that anyone who says “I am” is calling themselves God.
Edj, I won't even bother to respond to that “Task”, although I already have…
Edj, as an apolgy for irresponsible posting I grant you the opportunity for recompense with some homework. Produce a full frank and God-Father-YHVH-Honest critique of the rest of what I wrote by tomorrow morning – or else you are in detention….!
And this is an offer that YOU CANNOT Refuse.
Hi JustAskin,The standardized translation of ‘I am that I am’ (copied from the AKJV) can be proven to be wrong;
and that the N.W.T. (JW’s) version of the Bible has this phrase (אהיה אשר אהיה) translated correctly.N.W.T version Exodus 3:14: …“I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE”…
The AKJV linguists successfully translated the phrase אהיה into “I WILL” hundreds of times
in the “Old Testament”. The AKJV translators also [added words] (which they italicized)
to aid in translational differences; they did this practice throughout the bible so as to NOT corrupt it!The AKJV linguists should have translated אהיה אשר אהיה into “I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE”(in Ex.3:14);
And this can be proven; ‘I am’ cannot be translated back into Hebrew; also “YHVH”=63 and “Will Be”=63!
And now ‘i am’ has even become the false god of religion (based on a translation error)! (2Thess.2:4 / 1Timothy 1:15)The Hebrew language does not have a word for coincidence; and because of this
they do not believe there is such a thing. As a matter of fact they (Israelis) believe
if the Hebrew language does NOT have a word for it, then it ('i am'=23) doesn’t exist (and is “FAKE”=23).“YHVH is GOD”=117
1Timothy 1:17: “Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God, [be] honor and glory for ever and ever! Amen.
That is because “YHVH is GOD”=117, known as “GOD The Father”=117 or 117=[יהוה האלהים](JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL- ō-HêêmGod bless
Ed J
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgTo All,
How has the most active thread suddenly lost its appeal?
Has this topic infiltrated into other topics on this forum?Quote (Ed J @ April 25 2010,18:32) To All, How has the most active thread suddenly lost its appeal?
Has this topic infiltrated into other topics on this forum?
Hi,Sorry wrong thread.
EDJ,
'I AM', 'I Will Be', please tell that to the Trinitarians.
Why do you attack me as if I were somehow one of them.
Perhaps it is your mode of speech/writing but when you teach me a truth that was formerly unknown to me you do it in a way that is accussative as if I should already have known it. A bit harse, eh? Second time as well!
Just clarifying… God's name is now to be known as 'I Will'. This kills a great many of the Trinitarian doctrine, teaching, that everytime Jesus says 'I AM', He is saying that He is God, 'I will be the way, the truth and the life', 'I will be the true vine', 'I will be the good shepherd', 'before Abraham was, I will be!'
Edj,
Please explain the connection between 2 Thessalonian 2:4 and 1 Timothy 1:15, and 'I Am', and 'False God'.Jesus said to the Jews, 'Before Abraham was, fake!'. What does this mean?
(why do all the wierd, alien things in this world only happen in the sparsely populated, remote backwaters of the United States of America? Did God directed even inanimate objects to avoid populated areas of life? What are the mathematical chances that an asteroid hitting the earth lands in a remote, unpopulated area of land, coincidence? Perhaps, God intervened, more likely? Only in America!)
Quote (JustAskin @ April 25 2010,22:25) EDJ, 'I AM', 'I Will Be', please tell that to the Trinitarians.
Why do you attack me as if I were somehow one of them.
1) Perhaps it is your mode of speech/writing but when you teach me a truth that was formerly unknown to me you do it in a way that is accussative as if I should already have known it. A bit harse, eh? Second time as well!
2) Just clarifying… God's name is now to be known as 'I Will'. This kills a great many of the Trinitarian doctrine, teaching, that everytime Jesus says 'I AM', He is saying that He is God, 'I will be the way, the truth and the life', 'I will be the true vine', 'I will be the good shepherd', 'before Abraham was, I will be!'
Edj,
3) Please explain the connection between 2 Thessalonian 2:4 and 1 Timothy 1:15, and 'I Am', and 'False God'.Jesus said to the Jews, 'Before Abraham was, fake!'. What does this mean?
(why do all the wierd, alien things in this world only happen in the sparsely populated, remote backwaters of the United States of America? Did God directed even inanimate objects to avoid populated areas of life? What are the mathematical chances that an asteroid hitting the earth lands in a remote, unpopulated area of land, coincidence? Perhaps, God intervened, more likely? Only in America!)
Hi JustAskin,1) Yes; but very effective.
Prov:13:24: He that spareth his rod hateth his son:
but he that loveth him chasteneth him betimes.2) More exactly “I will be”! ….”will be”=63 and “YHVH”=63.
3) 2Thess 2:3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come
a falling away first, and that man of sin (Lucifer) be revealed, the son of perdition; Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is
“called God”=63(YHVH=63), or that is worshipped; so that he as (i am=23) God sitteth in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.
I only use “Gematria”=74(number associations) with relevance to “The Bible”; besides this type of use, it is useless!
'i am'=fake(23)
Lucifer=74 has infiltrated “The Bible”=63, first in the “Septuagint” Bible as {εγω ειμι} ěimi ēgō (i am) and later in the AKJV Bible
in Exodus 3:14! Most all English versions have copied this mistake with the exception of the N.W.T. which God has apparently used
to correct the few mistakes the AKJV Bible has in it! NOTE: The N.W.T. is NOT more accurate in general, only in some selected verses.The reason the AKJV Bible made this critical mistake is also the same reason it is the most accurate English-Speaking people possess.
It was translated on a very STRICT “word for word” basis.They should have translated the Hebrew phrase אהיה אשר אהיה into “I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE”
The AKJV translators used italicized words (which are added words) in all other places so as NOT to corrupt
the Masoretic Texts. I hope this answers your question. If not feel free to ask more questions; OK?1Tm.1:17 Now unto the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only wise God(YHVH),
be honor and glory for ever and ever. Amen.
Col.1:17 And he(YHVH) is before all things,
and by him all things consist.“YHVH is GOD”=117
PSALM 117 is [The Bible's Center Chapter], the [smallest chapter] of the [LARGEST BOOK]!Your brother in Christ!
Witnessing to the world in behalf of YHVH (Psalm 45:17)
117=יהוה האלהים(JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (AKJV Joshua 22:34 / Isaiah 60:13-15)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (JustAskin @ April 25 2010,22:25) EDJ, Jesus said to the Jews, 'Before Abraham was, fake!'. What does this mean?
Hi JustAskin,Just like The Bible has reoccurring “Fractals”, it is also similar to “Optics”.
“The Bible” must be looked at as a whole!
It's very much written like “Optics” is to sight.
The closer you look at something the less you can see.
And the farther away you look the more you can see, but with less clarity.This question is very easy to answer just go back two verses!
John 8:56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day:
and he saw it, and was glad.So you see Jesus day came “after” Lucifer's.
1Cor.15:22: For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.God bless
Ed J
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgEdj,
I really have to say that I have no idea what you are talking about. I am disressed that I cannot follow your logic.But, enough.
I will leave it there. Thank you.
Quote (JustAskin @ April 26 2010,00:25) Edj,
I really have to say that I have no idea what you are talking about. I am disressed that I cannot follow your logic.But, enough.
I will leave it there. Thank you.
Hi JustAskin,Feel free to ask more questions. Ideas should be clear to understand.
God bless
Ed JQuote (Gene Balthrop @ April 10 2010,14:45) WJ……….If you believe what scriptures say, Jesus is the (IMAGE) of GOD. Now consider what a Image is> The word image means to reflect or Mirror something , Jesus reflects GOD the FATHER to Us. You should better look at it as the Suns Light is Reflected BY the Moon and the stars also reflect it. Man was made to also reflect GOD , because it say we are created in His IMAGE, and Jesus is Also in His image. Now should we also say according to your theory that we are A GOD also. Think about it? peace and love…………….gene
Good question brother Gene. I hope others will realise that Jesus could be a man made in the image of God like any other human on this earth otherwise he could be a god or godman like any other religion claims.Gol,
Are you a circus performer, doing the tightrope walking.
If you are of God then Hold to ONE TRUTH and ONE TRUTH only – do not defile yourself with foreign religions and beliefs.
Jesus is a MAN in Spirit Form dwelling at this time in the Heavens with God's Power and Authority.
He is NOT a God/Man – There can be ONLY ONE GOD.Th e problem is that people do not define GOD but just use the TITLE – Ther then arises conflict when it is used correctly and when it is abused.
“GOD” – as in “THE ONE GOD, YHVH” is a COMPLETE BEING that Exist ABOVE and WITHIN ALL Creation, Jesus, the other Spirits (Angels of all levels), the universe, the earth, mankind and the animals.
“God” contains all things and from Him COMES all things – There is NOTHING that is OUTSIDE of “God” – He is the initiator, the creator, the sustainer, the SOURE of ALL THINGS.
“God” spoke a word and the universe was created 'through' the “Perfect Spirit Servant” who became Jesus Christ – Therefore God chose him as the Supreme Son of all his SONS (Spirit Creatures).
When GOd created Mankind he made ADAM, and Adam, for a short while walked in the ways of God With the HOLY SPIRIT (Which is the Spirit of God dwelling within God's creation (and all creation is within God) Because Adam walked in the ways of God and was created Supernaturall through the Holy Spirit – He was the First Human SON OF GOD and therefore was above all Spirit SONS of God – Angels do not 'have the holy Spirit' (For God does not give Aid to Angels – he has given them power and might and any task he sets them MUST be achieved of that power invested in them for so God has measured their worth before their appointment)
When ADAM sinned he lost his position as SON of GOd because the Holy Spirit was removed from him – and he became subject to death in the flesh – his psirit does not die but goes back to God who put it in him.Jesus came along from above, emptied himself of his Power and might and became fleshly man, [born/conceived] supernaturally through the Holy Spirit and therefore without the causial Sin of Adam.
He proved himself loyal to God in every way and was therefore Blessed with the Holy Spirit at his Basptism – and thus became SON of God – But, and to distinquishe him from the first Adam, SOn of God, He is called the LAST ADAM, BEGOTTEN Son of God, meaning He was not the First by birth but first by Rank order within the Sons of God.
He was tasked with bringing Gods word to the human masses and to reveal a great secret – that God's chosen people out of all the natons, were NOT the only ones who would be 'saved from Sin'. BUT that ALL men, each of every man, who believed in him and the message he brought, would be saved. And he was given a few men chosen of God up front to aid in his quest.
He died a predestined death to demonstrate humility, remission of Adams Sins and provide the OFFER of Salvation to as many as believed in him, And the GOD'S Power over death – to be raised again – can you understand what it is to die, for aperfect person to die – no – how can we – but Jesus did that Trustung in his “FATHER” to raise him from the dead – and this God did. He re-entered Heaven in a SPIRIT BODY – transformable into Human Fleshly body as he desires (The angels were Banned for such an activity after Satan and the rebels sinned – now ONLY Jesus has this Spirit BODY – as the ELECT of God and Christ will also at the appointed time.)
As his reward,he is given the prestigious taks of bringing to frruition, the completion of the WORD that God first spoke and He, Jesus participtated in wonderfully as the perfect Spirit Servant, but now he is the overseer of that task – being given allnecessary POWER and AUTHORITY over all flesh, powers and authorites within God's creatiion.
Of course, this does not extend to Power and Authority over HE WHO GAVE HIM that Power and Authority but EQUAL to Him BUT Not Over Him. Also, Jesus does not OWN the Power and authority – It is God's Power and authirty that he wields in his final quest -at the end of which he hands BACK to the OWNER that Power and authority as well as the Reconciled Kingdom, that task that Gods set him, in Glory and honor and Praise.
JA…..> Read Isaiah and you will see GOD Created the Whole world and everything in it (BY HIMSELF) and (ALONE) No one was there with Him creating anything. What you are saying contradicts those scriptures. It is a false teaching to teach Jesus' preexistence as any kind of a Being Before his berth on earth by Mary, that is the Spirit of Antichrist, spoken of by John, because it denies Jesus as coming into existence as a Flesh an Blood Person and gives Him a demigod status. Where does scripture show Jesus was Morphed in anyway. Not to mention that that would prove nothing to mankind about GOD'S ability to Created righteousness in (PURE) Human beings and detract from His work in mankind. Jesus Never preexisted His berth on earth except in the Plan and Purpose of GOD the Father. If He did then please show accounts of his works and his name or names. There is (ONLY) ONE TRUE GOD Who ALONE CREATES ALL THINGS, and HE gives His GLORY to (NO) MAN not even the son of MAN JESUS. IMO
peace and love……………….gene
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