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- July 1, 2007 at 6:41 am#57337Not3in1Participant
Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 01 2007,18:24) I believe that Jesus body was concieved just as the scripture says.
No, you don't.If you believed that Jesus was truly conceived, you would have quoted from the gospels. But instead you chose to quote from the passage regarding “…a body prepared for me…”
Mary = just a body prep lab.
Trinitarians do not believe in a true conception. They believe in an incarnation.
We will have to agree to disagree.
I believe the scriptures when they say Jesus was conceived. I don't go in search of other scriptures to possibly point to another theory.
July 1, 2007 at 6:53 am#57339Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (Not3in1 @ July 01 2007,18:41) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 01 2007,18:24) I believe that Jesus body was concieved just as the scripture says.
No, you don't.If you believed that Jesus was truly conceived, you would have quoted from the gospels. But instead you chose to quote from the passage regarding “…a body prepared for me…”
Mary = just a body prep lab.
Trinitarians do not believe in a true conception. They believe in an incarnation.
We will have to agree to disagree.
I believe the scriptures when they say Jesus was conceived. I don't go in search of other scriptures to possibly point to another theory.
not3Excuse me. I do believe in the conception of Jesus, just as the scripture I quoted.
Is the scripture I quoted less valid than this…
Who prepared that body in the womb?
Lk 1:31
And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.No I do not believe in your “gods sperm” interpretation and you have no scripture to prove your theory!
If you do please show us!
July 1, 2007 at 8:45 am#57345Is 1:18ParticipantQuote (942767 @ June 30 2007,14:24) Quote (Is 1:18 @ June 30 2007,14:11) Quote (942767 @ June 30 2007,09:48) Quote 3:3
For this man was counted worthy of more glory than Moses, inasmuch as he who hath builded the house hath more honour than the house.And this verse says “this man” was counted worthy of more glory than Moses. From the stand point of pre-existence, the scripture states that he was conceived of the Holy Ghost in the womb of the Virgin Mary. There is no where else in the scripture where we that he existed as a man before this event. Also, in that he is a man, he can not be God in the sense that Trinitarians indicate.
Don't forget about this part of the verse SDN:“For this man was counted worthy of more glory than Moses, inasmuch as he who hath builded the house hath more honour than the house.“
Hi Brother Isaiah:I did't forget that verse. It still says that he as a man builded the house, and that is explained by the following verse:
Hebrews 3:6
But Christ as a son over his own house; whose house are we, if we hold fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm unto the end.God Bless
Hi SDN,
I don't think I can put it any more clearly than WJ has done in this post:Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 01 2007,16:58) 94 You say…
Quote
Why do you not rather respond to what I have given Isaiah relative to Hebrews 3:1ff?God Bless
There is no contradiction here. Jesus is both God and man.
John 1:1-3 clearly shows that that Yahshua before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh in vrs 14, and dwelt among us as man, that by him “ALL” things were created that were created and without him the Word/God was not anything made that was made. Vrs 3.
He was in the world and the world was “made by Him” and the world knew him not. (and many still dont). Vrs 10.
Heb 1:3,10 and Col 1:16,17 are unambiguous scriptures showing Jesus is clearly the executer of the creation.
So the writer of the Book of Hebrews I am sure has not forgotten what he wrote when he says…
Heb 3:
3 For this man was counted worthy of more glory than Moses, inasmuch as he who hath builded the house hath more honour than the house.
4 For every house is builded by some man; but he that built all things is God.Notice, Moses didnt build his house! Jesus did, for he was worthy of more Glory than Moses since he was the builder of the house.
The writer of Hebrews in the same breath says “God” builds all things!
If God built all things and Jesus built his house, then the writer Hebrews is only reafirming the following…
Heb 1:
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
3 Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high:This is why Jesus is worthy of more Glory and Honor!
Then the writer goes on to say…
Heb 1:
6 And again, when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.
And of the angels he saith, Who maketh his angels spirits, and his ministers a flame of fire.
But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows.
And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of thine hands:
They shall perish; but thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment;
And as a vesture shalt thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but thou art the same, and thy years shall not fail.https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin….;t=1278
Clearly all things were made by him (Yahshua) and for him and without him was not anything made that was made.
In the analogy the writer used:
Moses = House.
Jesus = Builder of that house (Moses)The fact that Yeshua is “son over his own house” does not invalidate what was written previously….
Blessings brother
Is 1:18July 1, 2007 at 8:51 am#57346Is 1:18ParticipantQuote (TimothyVI @ July 01 2007,00:45) Quote (Laurel @ June 30 2007,16:32) Gen. 1:1
In the beginning Elohim created the heavens and the earth. In the Hebrew original text the Word Elohim is used rather than the Word God. Elohim is a plural of the El. So we can see that YHWH, the Father was not alone at creation.
Also in Matt. The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us… tells me that Y'shua was there in the beginning with the Father.
There's another clue although I do not recall of hand where, that speaks of His death and assention. The Word clearly states He desended to the earth to bring the good news of the kingdom, He died and was placed in the earth, or the grave, He then assended to the ritght hand of the Father.
Some take this and twist it all around to say Y'shua went to hell to coax the dead to repentance, which goes against all Scripture about the dead who are asleep. We get one shot at getting it right and that is while we are still alive on the planet. After the first death, and for some it will be the only death, there's no repentance.
Hi Laurel,Welcome. I believe that the “us” referred to in Matt were the folks here on earth that he was talking to. Not another being with God in the beginning.
Tim
Hi Tim,
Could you tell me what the “us” scripture in Matt is that you are referring to here? The “word was made flesh” reference comes from John 1:14, I would have thought. Unless I have misunderstood Laurel…..July 1, 2007 at 9:20 am#57348NickHassanParticipantHi Is 1.18
Heb 3
“1Wherefore, holy brethren, partakers of the heavenly calling, consider the Apostle and High Priest of our profession, Christ Jesus;2Who was faithful to him that appointed him, as also Moses was faithful in all his house.
3For this man was counted worthy of more glory than Moses, inasmuch as he who hath builded the house hath more honour than the house.
4For every house is builded by some man; but he that built all things is God.
5And Moses verily was faithful in all his house, as a servant, for a testimony of those things which were to be spoken after;
6But Christ as a son over his own house; whose house are we, if we hold fast the confidence and the rejoicing of the hope firm unto the end.”
We are living stones to be formed into a house.
1Peter 2
“4To whom coming, as unto a living stone, disallowed indeed of men, but chosen of God, and precious,5Ye also, as lively stones, are built up a spiritual house, an holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices, acceptable to God by Jesus Christ.
6Wherefore also it is contained in the scripture, Behold, I lay in Sion a chief corner stone, elect, precious: and he that believeth on him shall not be confounded.
7Unto you therefore which believe he is precious: but unto them which be disobedient, the stone which the builders disallowed, the same is made the head of the corner, “
So we in the body of Christ are with Christ, the new house, the new temple.
Eph 2
' 19Now therefore ye are no more strangers and foreigners, but fellowcitizens with the saints, and of the household of God;20And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
21In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:
22In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.”
Christ is the cornerstone of the House and is in authority over this house.
The Son is Lord of the sons of God.
Moses was also in and responsible for his house of faith.
God is the builder of all things but uses human vessels to do this work-Moses and Christ.
God is greater than either house so greater than Christ and Moses.
God deserves the glory for all the work of His vessels as the true builder.July 1, 2007 at 10:53 am#57355TimothyVIParticipantQuote (Is 1:18 @ July 01 2007,20:51) Quote (TimothyVI @ July 01 2007,00:45) Quote (Laurel @ June 30 2007,16:32) Gen. 1:1
In the beginning Elohim created the heavens and the earth. In the Hebrew original text the Word Elohim is used rather than the Word God. Elohim is a plural of the El. So we can see that YHWH, the Father was not alone at creation.
Also in Matt. The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us… tells me that Y'shua was there in the beginning with the Father.
There's another clue although I do not recall of hand where, that speaks of His death and assention. The Word clearly states He desended to the earth to bring the good news of the kingdom, He died and was placed in the earth, or the grave, He then assended to the ritght hand of the Father.
Some take this and twist it all around to say Y'shua went to hell to coax the dead to repentance, which goes against all Scripture about the dead who are asleep. We get one shot at getting it right and that is while we are still alive on the planet. After the first death, and for some it will be the only death, there's no repentance.
Hi Laurel,Welcome. I believe that the “us” referred to in Matt were the folks here on earth that he was talking to. Not another being with God in the beginning.
Tim
Hi Tim,
Could you tell me what the “us” scripture in Matt is that you are referring to here? The “word was made flesh” reference comes from John 1:14, I would have thought. Unless I have misunderstood Laurel…..
Hi Is1:18,You are right. It was I who misunderstood laurel.
It was late and I was fuzzy brained and thought that since laurel was talking about the plurality of God that he used this verse, “Gen. 1:1
In the beginning Elohim created the heavens and the earth. In the Hebrew original text the Word Elohim is used rather than the Word God. Elohim is a plural of the El. So we can see that YHWH, the Father was not alone at creation.
Also in Matt. The Word was made flesh and dwelt among us..” to indicate that the “us” meant that the Father was not alone at creation.I have seen people use more bizarre stretches of scriptures before.
Sorry, My bad. But I am happy to know that you read my post .
Tim
July 1, 2007 at 2:19 pm#57366kenrchParticipantQuote k It dosnt say in the beginning was the Son.
John was talking about Jesus who was/is the Word before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh.
He became a son when he was born.
The Word was with God and the Word was God.
Here is a solid interpretation of Jn 1:1
“It dosnt say in the beginning was the Son.”
No scripture sure doesn't say in the beginning was the Son.“John was talking about Jesus who was/is the Word before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh.
No, John 1:1 says Word not Jesus, nowhere is Jesus mentioned in John 1:1.
“He became a son when he was born.”
True, when the Word of God became flesh he then became the only born Son of the Father.
“The Word was with God and the Word was God.”
God's Word was with God and naturally God's Word was God coming from God being part of God.
Take it as it is written. The Word of God became flesh. Through the Word of God everything that came into being. Again God speaks things into existence. God used His Word to create.
Rom 4:17 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. And in Gen. God “said”…spoke the Word and there was light.
Perhaps it's just the thought how can a Word become a being. I ask, how can a Word become light? The Father took part of Himself, His Word and made it flesh. So was God's Word that became flesh the Father No the Word is part of God that became flesh. The Word that became flesh~Jesus~was still the Word of God. Jesus the Word spoke NOT of His own He spoke what the Father gave Him just as the Word did before the Word became flesh. The Word was spoke by the Father to create.
Jesus the “Son of MAN” had the Father's words in Him. The literal Word of God became flesh. Can God do that? No, God DID do that!
All thing were created by and for Jesus. Again how did God create? All things God created by His Word became for the flesh that He created.
Jesus the Son of man (as I said) had a choice to live the flesh that was given Him or live the Word that was IN HIM. The same choice we have once born again of the Spirit.
Jesus following the word that was in Him made His flesh like the word that was in Him. Because of His submission to the Word he conquered His flesh making both the Word and the flesh ONE.
Eph 2:15 by abolishing the law of commandments and ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace,
July 1, 2007 at 3:10 pm#57367GeneBalthropParticipantQuote (kenrch @ July 02 2007,02:19) Quote k It dosnt say in the beginning was the Son.
John was talking about Jesus who was/is the Word before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh.
He became a son when he was born.
The Word was with God and the Word was God.
Here is a solid interpretation of Jn 1:1
“It dosnt say in the beginning was the Son.”
No scripture sure doesn't say in the beginning was the Son.“John was talking about Jesus who was/is the Word before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh.
No, John 1:1 says Word not Jesus, nowhere is Jesus mentioned in John 1:1.
“He became a son when he was born.”
True, when the Word of God became flesh he then became the only born Son of the Father.
“The Word was with God and the Word was God.”
God's Word was with God and naturally God's Word was God coming from God being part of God.
Take it as it is written. The Word of God became flesh. Through the Word of God everything that came into being. Again God speaks things into existence. God used His Word to create.
Rom 4:17 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. And in Gen. God “said”…spoke the Word and there was light.
Perhaps it's just the thought how can a Word become a being. I ask, how can a Word become light? The Father took part of Himself, His Word and made it flesh. So was God's Word that became flesh the Father No the Word is part of God that became flesh. The Word that became flesh~Jesus~was still the Word of God. Jesus the Word spoke NOT of His own He spoke what the Father gave Him just as the Word did before the Word became flesh. The Word was spoke by the Father to create.
Jesus the “Son of MAN” had the Father's words in Him. The literal Word of God became flesh. Can God do that? No, God DID do that!
All thing were created by and for Jesus. Again how did God create? All things God created by His Word became for the flesh that He created.
Jesus the Son of man (as I said) had a choice to live the flesh that was given Him or live the Word that was IN HIM. The same choice we have once born again of the Spirit.
Jesus following the word that was in Him made His flesh like the word that was in Him. Because of His submission to the Word he conquered His flesh making both the Word and the flesh ONE.
Eph 2:15 by abolishing the law of commandments and ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace,
kenrch> you are not far from the kingdom of God.The word (became) means in this case , (came to be in) obviously no word can literaly be flesh, flesh is one thing and a word is spirit, remember when Jesus said the words in am speaking are spirit and they are life.Jesus plainly said the words he spoke were NOT his Words but the words of the one who sent him.
hang on to what you have brother….. gene
July 1, 2007 at 7:18 pm#57373942767ParticipantQuote (Gene Balthrop @ July 02 2007,03:10) Quote (kenrch @ July 02 2007,02:19) Quote k It dosnt say in the beginning was the Son.
John was talking about Jesus who was/is the Word before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh.
He became a son when he was born.
The Word was with God and the Word was God.
Here is a solid interpretation of Jn 1:1
“It dosnt say in the beginning was the Son.”
No scripture sure doesn't say in the beginning was the Son.“John was talking about Jesus who was/is the Word before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh.
No, John 1:1 says Word not Jesus, nowhere is Jesus mentioned in John 1:1.
“He became a son when he was born.”
True, when the Word of God became flesh he then became the only born Son of the Father.
“The Word was with God and the Word was God.”
God's Word was with God and naturally God's Word was God coming from God being part of God.
Take it as it is written. The Word of God became flesh. Through the Word of God everything that came into being. Again God speaks things into existence. God used His Word to create.
Rom 4:17 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. And in Gen. God “said”…spoke the Word and there was light.
Perhaps it's just the thought how can a Word become a being. I ask, how can a Word become light? The Father took part of Himself, His Word and made it flesh. So was God's Word that became flesh the Father No the Word is part of God that became flesh. The Word that became flesh~Jesus~was still the Word of God. Jesus the Word spoke NOT of His own He spoke what the Father gave Him just as the Word did before the Word became flesh. The Word was spoke by the Father to create.
Jesus the “Son of MAN” had the Father's words in Him. The literal Word of God became flesh. Can God do that? No, God DID do that!
All thing were created by and for Jesus. Again how did God create? All things God created by His Word became for the flesh that He created.
Jesus the Son of man (as I said) had a choice to live the flesh that was given Him or live the Word that was IN HIM. The same choice we have once born again of the Spirit.
Jesus following the word that was in Him made His flesh like the word that was in Him. Because of His submission to the Word he conquered His flesh making both the Word and the flesh ONE.
Eph 2:15 by abolishing the law of commandments and ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace,
kenrch> you are not far from the kingdom of God.The word (became) means in this case , (came to be in) obviously no word can literaly be flesh, flesh is one thing and a word is spirit, remember when Jesus said the words in am speaking are spirit and they are life.Jesus plainly said the words he spoke were NOT his Words but the words of the one who sent him.
hang on to what you have brother….. gene
Hi Brothers Ken and Gene:I agree with your statements. And so, the burden of proof is on those who say that Jesus pre-existed before he was conceived of the Holy Ghost to show by the scriptures that he existed as a sentient person.
God Bless
July 1, 2007 at 7:23 pm#57374942767ParticipantHi WJ & Isaiah:
Please give your comments on the rest of my post which is:
Quote Hi Brother Isaiah: Also, the following scripture may help:
Ephesians 2:20
And are built upon the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ himself being the chief corner stone;
2:21
In whom all the building fitly framed together groweth unto an holy temple in the Lord:
2:22
In whom ye also are builded together for an habitation of God through the Spirit.I believe that this indicates that there is a difference between the creation of mankind and what is termed as the house being builded.
God Bless
July 2, 2007 at 1:36 am#57405Not3in1ParticipantQuote (WorshippingJesus @ July 01 2007,18:53) Quote (Not3in1 @ July 01 2007,18:41) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 01 2007,18:24) I believe that Jesus body was concieved just as the scripture says.
No, you don't.If you believed that Jesus was truly conceived, you would have quoted from the gospels. But instead you chose to quote from the passage regarding “…a body prepared for me…”
Mary = just a body prep lab.
Trinitarians do not believe in a true conception. They believe in an incarnation.
We will have to agree to disagree.
I believe the scriptures when they say Jesus was conceived. I don't go in search of other scriptures to possibly point to another theory.
not3Excuse me. I do believe in the conception of Jesus, just as the scripture I quoted.
Is the scripture I quoted less valid than this…
Who prepared that body in the womb?
Lk 1:31
And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.No I do not believe in your “gods sperm” interpretation and you have no scripture to prove your theory!
If you do please show us!
You gave all the scripture I need to show in Luke!Luke speaks of a true conception. You do not believe in this conception – AT ALL! You can say that you do if it makes you feel better, but you do not. I am passionate about this because I know that you believe in an “incarnation” and not a “conception.”
They are very DIFFERENT ideas.
July 2, 2007 at 1:38 am#57406Not3in1ParticipantQuote (942767 @ July 02 2007,07:18) Quote (Gene Balthrop @ July 02 2007,03:10) Quote (kenrch @ July 02 2007,02:19) Quote k It dosnt say in the beginning was the Son.
John was talking about Jesus who was/is the Word before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh.
He became a son when he was born.
The Word was with God and the Word was God.
Here is a solid interpretation of Jn 1:1
“It dosnt say in the beginning was the Son.”
No scripture sure doesn't say in the beginning was the Son.“John was talking about Jesus who was/is the Word before he took on the likeness of sinful flesh.
No, John 1:1 says Word not Jesus, nowhere is Jesus mentioned in John 1:1.
“He became a son when he was born.”
True, when the Word of God became flesh he then became the only born Son of the Father.
“The Word was with God and the Word was God.”
God's Word was with God and naturally God's Word was God coming from God being part of God.
Take it as it is written. The Word of God became flesh. Through the Word of God everything that came into being. Again God speaks things into existence. God used His Word to create.
Rom 4:17 (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were. And in Gen. God “said”…spoke the Word and there was light.
Perhaps it's just the thought how can a Word become a being. I ask, how can a Word become light? The Father took part of Himself, His Word and made it flesh. So was God's Word that became flesh the Father No the Word is part of God that became flesh. The Word that became flesh~Jesus~was still the Word of God. Jesus the Word spoke NOT of His own He spoke what the Father gave Him just as the Word did before the Word became flesh. The Word was spoke by the Father to create.
Jesus the “Son of MAN” had the Father's words in Him. The literal Word of God became flesh. Can God do that? No, God DID do that!
All thing were created by and for Jesus. Again how did God create? All things God created by His Word became for the flesh that He created.
Jesus the Son of man (as I said) had a choice to live the flesh that was given Him or live the Word that was IN HIM. The same choice we have once born again of the Spirit.
Jesus following the word that was in Him made His flesh like the word that was in Him. Because of His submission to the Word he conquered His flesh making both the Word and the flesh ONE.
Eph 2:15 by abolishing the law of commandments and ordinances, that he might create in himself one new man in place of the two, so making peace,
kenrch> you are not far from the kingdom of God.The word (became) means in this case , (came to be in) obviously no word can literaly be flesh, flesh is one thing and a word is spirit, remember when Jesus said the words in am speaking are spirit and they are life.Jesus plainly said the words he spoke were NOT his Words but the words of the one who sent him.
hang on to what you have brother….. gene
Hi Brothers Ken and Gene:I agree with your statements. And so, the burden of proof is on those who say that Jesus pre-existed before he was conceived of the Holy Ghost to show by the scriptures that he existed as a sentient person.
God Bless
Amen!July 2, 2007 at 3:48 am#57418Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (Not3in1 @ July 02 2007,13:36) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 01 2007,18:53) Quote (Not3in1 @ July 01 2007,18:41) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ July 01 2007,18:24) I believe that Jesus body was concieved just as the scripture says.
No, you don't.If you believed that Jesus was truly conceived, you would have quoted from the gospels. But instead you chose to quote from the passage regarding “…a body prepared for me…”
Mary = just a body prep lab.
Trinitarians do not believe in a true conception. They believe in an incarnation.
We will have to agree to disagree.
I believe the scriptures when they say Jesus was conceived. I don't go in search of other scriptures to possibly point to another theory.
not3Excuse me. I do believe in the conception of Jesus, just as the scripture I quoted.
Is the scripture I quoted less valid than this…
Who prepared that body in the womb?
Lk 1:31
And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.No I do not believe in your “gods sperm” interpretation and you have no scripture to prove your theory!
If you do please show us!
You gave all the scripture I need to show in Luke!Luke speaks of a true conception. You do not believe in this conception – AT ALL! You can say that you do if it makes you feel better, but you do not. I am passionate about this because I know that you believe in an “incarnation” and not a “conception.”
They are very DIFFERENT ideas.
not3I give you scripture showing “Jesus body” was concieved.
But the Spirit of Jesus is from everlasting.
Micah 5:2
But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.Yahshua had no beginning.
Now you can accuse me of not believeing in the conception of his body if you want.
However if you believe Jesus beginnings were at his natural birth then you deny the many scriptures that say otherwise.
Look again and try not to put a “Unitarian” interpretation on them.
Jn 6:38
For *I came down* from heaven, not to do mine own will, but the will of him that sent me.Jn 6:41
The Jews then murmured at him, because he said, I am the bread which *came down from heaven*.Jn 6:42
And they said, Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? how is it then that he saith, *I came down* from heaven?Jn 6:51
I am the living bread which came down from heaven: if any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever: and the bread that I will give is my flesh, which I will give for the life of the world.And to make sure that they fully understood what he was saying, he goes on to say…
Jn 6:
61 When Jesus knew in himself that his disciples murmured at it, he said unto them, Doth this offend you?62 What and if ye shall see the Son of man *ascend up where he was before*?
And what about these…
Heb 10:5
Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:Jn 17:5
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which *I had with thee* before the world was.These scriptures do not need any special interpretation!
The writers of the scriptures clearly stated what they heard under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit!
Heb 10:5
Wherefore when he cometh into the world, he saith, Sacrifice and offering thou wouldest not, but a body hast thou prepared me:July 2, 2007 at 3:55 am#57420NickHassanParticipantamen W,
But the Spirit referred to as the Spirit of Christ is the Holy Spirit of God, given to him at the Jordan.
His own spirit left him at calvary.July 2, 2007 at 4:22 am#57422LaurelParticipantHi everyone,
I just want to say that I really appreciate the open heart and faithful searching of you people here. It looks to me we are all in the same boat, wanting to see the truth for ourselves and prooving it. Amen to that!
I'd also like to add to this and hope it would feed the hungry souls here to say that Our Father in heaven, who did create the heavens and earth in 6 literal days, and according to Scripture knew the end from the beginning, did make the Spirit of the Son as alive to Himself from before creation of the physical things we know, that this Son would be born of a woman to be an ensample to this wicked and crazy place we call home. Y'shua was in the begining if even as His divine inspiration makes Him there from everlasting untill everlasting. The inspired Word IS Y'shua Messiah to every detail. Just as we were known to Him before we were conceived in the womb, He knew and knows how many hairs are on each of our heads. I know in my whole heart and soul that Y'shua Messiah was there in the beginning as part of the Spirit of Elohim. He became flesh to tabernacle among us to fulfill the Word, because He is the Word and the Spirit of YHWH our Elohim. Amen Amen Praise be to YHWH our Elohim who knew we needed a Savior and provided an escape from the second death to all who believe in His Name.July 2, 2007 at 4:39 am#57423ProclaimerParticipantHi Laurel.
I find it hard to read your post as the text is too light.
July 2, 2007 at 4:39 am#57424NickHassanParticipantHi L,
It is hard to know and love what does not exist.
Christ was known and loved before the foundation of the world.
1 Peter 1:20
For He was foreknown before the foundation of the world, but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you
John 17:24
“Father, I desire that they also, whom You have given Me, be with Me where I am, so that they may see My glory which You have given Me, for You loved Me before the foundation of the world.July 2, 2007 at 4:40 am#57425Not3in1ParticipantQuote (WorshippingJesus @ July 02 2007,15:48) I give you scripture showing “Jesus body” was concieved.
Why do you have to put this in quotes – “Jesus' body”?Was only his flesh conceived?
July 2, 2007 at 4:41 am#57427NickHassanParticipantHi not3,
Jn3
” 6That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.”July 2, 2007 at 4:44 am#57430Not3in1ParticipantQuote (Laurel @ July 02 2007,16:22) that this Son would be born of a woman
Hi Laurel,By the above quote I understand that you mean the preexistent son was transported via Mary to the earth where he guised himself as a man?
I believe that Jesus underwent a true conception as the scriptures teach. As such, if he existed in ANY PHYSICAL WAY prior to the conception spoken of in Luke – when he was conceived – he was altered from his previous state.
If a son existed prior to being conceived – when he was “joined” with Mary – he “came out” another individual. Thoughts on that?
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