- This topic has 228 replies, 17 voices, and was last updated 2 years, 11 months ago by sonofGod.
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- April 23, 2012 at 11:44 pm#294472mikeboll64Blocked
Quote (terraricca @ April 23 2012,09:35) Quote (Ed J @ April 24 2012,08:07) Hi Mike, Thanks for correcting your mistake.
edjyou are the second Nick
May 3, 2012 at 7:59 pm#296283Ed JParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Sep. 15 2011,14:11) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 15 2011,13:30) Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by “The Word” of God,
so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear. (Hebrews 11:3)Did Jesus appear, yes or no?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 15 2011,13:44) Ed, YES. Jesus APPEARED to his disciples many times in many places. See? The question was answered with a YES or NO, right? Give me a hard one.
Hi Mike,Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by “The Word” of God,
so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear. (Hebrews 11:3)Since you agreed that Jesus was something that appeared (according to what Hebrews 11:3 says),
you do now understand Hebrews 11:3 disqualifies Jesus from being a candidate for “The Word”, Yes or No?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
(Topic: Loaded questions cannot be answered yes or no,
they must first be re-worded unloaded.)
Hi Mike,Since you never answered this yes/no question, it may be one such example; right?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMay 3, 2012 at 8:34 pm#296287Ed JParticipant(Topic: Loaded questions cannot be answered yes or no,
they must first be re-worded unloaded.). (Link to the thread it was taken from)
Quote (jammin @ May 03 2012,20:59) edj, just pick your answer
ill repeatwht did peter say in 2 pet 1.4
1.do you exist in the form of God
2. you might be partakers of divine nature.choose 1 or 2 for your answer
Hi Jammin, this tactic, though done in the dark, is exposed! (see Eph.5:13)
Not answering your carefully constructed questions within the confines
of the specific restrictions DOES NOT constitute as a non-answer!This is yet another example (but not as a yes/no question)
of general non-specific worded questions (with exclusions)
that are going to be later used in a more specific way
to attempt to substantiate a belief held as doctrine.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMay 3, 2012 at 8:35 pm#296288Ed JParticipant(Topic: Loaded questions cannot be answered yes or no,
they must first be re-worded unloaded.)Here is one way I answered his question…
Quote (jammin @ May 01 2012,20:23) edj, just pick your answer
ill repeatwht did peter say in 2 pet 1.4
1.do you exist in the form of God
2. you might be partakers of divine nature.choose 1 or 2 for your answer
Hi Jammin, (You are attempting to detach the pertinent connection of
Phil. 2:5-6 from its associative counterpart of 2 Peter 1:3-4!)The Apostle Peter was saying the same thing the Apostle Paul was saying…
1) 2:5 τουτο γαρ φρονεισθω εν υμιν ο και εν χριστω ιησου
2:6 ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων ουχ αρπαγμον ηγησατο το ειναι ισα θεω(Phil 2:5-6) 2:5 This understanding is in you in Christ Jesus:
2:6 In the form that God exists, think it not robbery to be considered equal.2) “According as his divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness,
through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory and virtue: Whereby are given unto us exceeding
great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature,
having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.” (2 Peter 1:3-4)Here is something else the Apostle Peter said…
“As our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;
As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard
to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest,
as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.” (2 Peter 3:15-16)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMay 3, 2012 at 8:36 pm#296289Ed JParticipant(Topic: Loaded questions cannot be answered yes or no,
they must first be re-worded unloaded.)Here is another way I answered his question…
Quote (jammin @ May 02 2012,16:38) ill answer your question if you answer mine
Hi Jammin, OK. (my question was never answered)Quote “According as his divine power hath given unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness,
through the knowledge of him that hath called us to glory and virtue: Whereby are given unto us exceeding
great and precious promises: that by these ye might be partakers of the divine nature,
having escaped the corruption that is in the world through lust.” (2 Peter 1:3-4)
Being the “New Man”: I have God's divine nature,
which consists of the understanding listed in Philippians 2:5-6.2:5 τουτο γαρ φρονεισθω εν υμιν ο και εν χριστω ιησου
2:6 ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων ουχ αρπαγμον ηγησατο το ειναι ισα θεω(Phil 2:5-6) 2:5 This understanding is in you in Christ Jesus:
2:6 In the form that God exists, think it not robbery to be considered equal.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMay 3, 2012 at 11:48 pm#296324mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Ed J @ May 03 2012,13:59) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 15 2011,14:11)
you do now understand Hebrews 11:3 disqualifies Jesus from being a candidate for “The Word”, Yes or No?Hi Mike,
Since you never answered this yes/no question, it may be one such example; right?
God bless
Ed J
The answer to your question is “NO”.And the only scripturally correct answer to jammin's question you keep avoiding is “#2”.
Why is it so hard for some people to answer simple questions? You feel “afraid” that jammin might somehow “trap” you in your words, but how could you possibly be “trapped” in truth?
Always answer truthfully and you have nothing to worry about.
2 Peter 1:4
………..you may participate in the divine nature and escape the corruption in the world caused by evil desires.The words Peter wrote are right there in the scriptures for all to see, Ed. Why not just give jammin a DIRECT answer?
May 3, 2012 at 11:59 pm#296326Ed JParticipantHi Mike,
Through faith we understand that the worlds were framed by “The Word” of God,
so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear. (Hebrews 11:3)Since you agreed that Jesus was something that appeared (according to what Hebrews 11:3 says),
you do now understand Hebrews 11:3 disqualifies Jesus from being a candidate for “The Word”, Yes or No?Since you agreed that Jesus appeared, why would you say he is not disqualified as “The Word”?
What do you suggest this means then? “so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.”God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgMay 4, 2012 at 12:27 am#296333mikeboll64BlockedHebrews 11:3
NET © By faith we understand that the worlds were set in order at God’s command, so that the visible has its origin in the invisible.
NIV ©
By faith we understand that the universe was formed at God’s command, so that what is seen was not made out of what was visible.NASB ©
By faith we understand that the worlds were prepared by the word of God, so that what is seen was not made out of things which are visible.NRSV ©
By faith we understand that the worlds were prepared by the word of God, so that what is seen was made from things that are not visible.NKJV ©
By faith we understand that the worlds were framed by the word of God, so that the things which are seen were not made of things which are visible.I think you are playing with words. I think your attempt to force the scriptures to teach one of your doctrines is pathetic. And I think that is probably why I ignored this question seven and a half months ago.
Ed, were all things created by God? Did He not “appear” to Moses, and let Moses see His backside?
May 4, 2012 at 3:10 am#296386Ed JParticipantHi Mike, thank you for looking into the point I was making.
There are now two aspects we have presented here, they are:1. Since Jesus “did appear” does that disqualify him. (I say “YES”) …and…
2. Could it be said that YHVH appeared as well? (I say “NO”)2.A. YHVH was never physical. and…
2.B. (Ex 33:20) “Thou canst not see my face:
for there shall no man see me, and live.”So the only remaining question is:
Since Jesus DID APPEAR does that
disqualify him as being “The Word”. (I say “YES”)Your brother
in Christ, Jesus.
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
holycitybiblecode.orgMay 4, 2012 at 3:11 am#296388Ed JParticipantSo, why do you say “No”?
May 5, 2012 at 12:40 am#296548mikeboll64BlockedExodus 33
22 When my glory passes by, I will put you in a cleft in the rock and cover you with my hand until I have passed by. 23 Then I will remove my hand and you will see my back; but my face must not be seen.”That is one reason, Ed. Here is another:
“so that things which are seen were not made of things which do appear.”Who ever claimed that the visible things were made “OF” Jesus? In fact, who besides Trinitarians ever claimed that the visible things were even made “BY” Jesus?
I claim what the scriptures teach: All things, visible and invisible, were made BY God THROUGH Jesus.
May 5, 2012 at 4:38 am#296580NickHassanParticipantHi ED,
Certainly God made his abode with the Israelites for a time
but do you think He was no longer in heaven then?He let His glory and His goodness be seen.
Even heaven cannot contain Him.
May 5, 2012 at 4:38 am#296581NickHassanParticipantHi MB,
You mean Jesus CHRIST?
The WORD was GodMay 5, 2012 at 2:41 pm#296612mikeboll64BlockedNick,
Can someTHING that was God become someONE who is no longer God, and has a will of his own?
Does God ever change?
May 5, 2012 at 9:37 pm#296652942767ParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ May 06 2012,01:41) Nick, Can someTHING that was God become someONE who is no longer God, and has a will of his own?
Does God ever change?
Hi Mike:And so, based on this comment, the “Word that was God” that became flesh in John 1 is “No Longer God”?
Love in Christ,
MartyMay 5, 2012 at 10:26 pm#296658NickHassanParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ May 06 2012,01:41) Nick, Can someTHING that was God become someONE who is no longer God, and has a will of his own?
Does God ever change?
Hi MB,
” CAN ” being from a human logical perspective?What does scripture say
?The Word was with God and the Word was God.
Is that not good enough for you?May 5, 2012 at 10:26 pm#296659NickHassanParticipantHi MB,
The scriptures never SAY that the WORD was SOMEONE.May 5, 2012 at 10:27 pm#296660NickHassanParticipantHi MB,
THe Word became flesh–as the SON of GOD.Is the Son of God GOD?
May 6, 2012 at 3:28 pm#296720mikeboll64BlockedQuote (942767 @ May 05 2012,15:37) Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 06 2012,01:41) Nick, Can someTHING that was God become someONE who is no longer God, and has a will of his own?
Does God ever change?
Hi Mike:And so, based on this comment, the “Word that was God” that became flesh in John 1 is “No Longer God”?
Love in Christ,
Marty
Hi Marty,If John 1:1c in fact taught that the Word was “THE god” (which it doesn't), then scripture would be teaching that something that WAS God could become someone that WASN'T God.
But since John 1:1c teaches that the Word was a god who was with “THE god”, we have no such conundrum.
May 6, 2012 at 3:44 pm#296722mikeboll64BlockedQuote (Nick Hassan @ May 05 2012,16:26) Quote (mikeboll64 @ May 06 2012,01:41) Nick, Can someTHING that was God become someONE who is no longer God, and has a will of his own?
Does God ever change?
Hi MB,
” CAN ” being from a human logical perspective?What does scripture say
?The Word was with God and the Word was God.
Is that not good enough for you?
Nick,That would be good enough for me if we could be certain that the Word was THE God he was WITH in the beginning.
But not only is it highly illogical that God could be WITH Himself, but we also have to consider the FACT that “theos” in John 1:1c can be faithfully translated as “God” (which causes God to be WITH God )……………..OR…………..it can faithfully translated as “a god”.
The “a god” translation doesn't make the illogical claim that God can be WITH God, nor does it call for something that WAS God to become someone who WASN'T God.
So while I know that you will keep making your lame claim that “SCRIPTURE” says the Word was the very God he was with, you would be more accurate to say that “many English speaking TRANSLATORS” say the Word was the very God he was with.
What SCRIPTURE actually teaches is that the one Jehovah foretold would be called a mighty god is the god who was WITH Jehovah in the beginning – the god who also goes by the name “the Word of God”.
So Nick, you can keep PRETENDING that the ONLY possible translation of 1:1c is “God”, but you are only hurting yourself by ignoring the obvious and sensible translation of “a god”. You hurt yourself by denying yourself an accurate understanding of what John taught; because John never taught that God could be with God, nor that our God who never changes could become someone who is no longer God.
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