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Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 22 2011,15:19) Both the Father and Jesus are called God in scriptures and we know they are One. Not only that but according to Tit 2:13, John 20:28 he is our Lord and Great God.
Yeah Keith,But wasn't it you who said, “just because Jesus is called God does not mean he is God”?
mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 23 2011,13:19) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 22 2011,15:19) Both the Father and Jesus are called God in scriptures and we know they are One. Not only that but according to Tit 2:13, John 20:28 he is our Lord and Great God.
Yeah Keith,But wasn't it you who said, “just because Jesus is called God does not mean he is God”?
mike
Hi Mike,I believe you just figured it out! (Isaiah 9:6)
For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given:
and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and
his name shall be called Wonderful, Counseller,
The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.Your brother
in Christ, Jesus!
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 22 2011,21:19) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 22 2011,15:19) Both the Father and Jesus are called God in scriptures and we know they are One. Not only that but according to Tit 2:13, John 20:28 he is our Lord and Great God.
Yeah Keith,But wasn't it you who said, “just because Jesus is called God does not mean he is God”?
mike
MikeYes, just as you have admitted that “being called God can mean that one is God“.
It is also you that said…
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 08 2011,14:05) Jesus is one who has been called by the title “god”, so he is also “A god”. He has not specifically been called “THE god” of anything in particular, but knowing that “god” only means “ruler”, I can honestly say that he is “my god”.
But for some reason I never hear you call him your god. All you ever do is claim that he is not god. What gives Mike?It is all about context Mike. Jesus is God and the facts back it up. Nothing has come into being without him, and he sits in the Throne of God having “Sovereign rule” over all creation as King of Kings and Lord of Lords and by him all things consist.
Not only does Jesus have the title God but he is currently in the position and role of God.
When are you going to prove to us that Jesus is less than the Father Mike?
When are you going to give Jesus the same honour as the Father?
Mike you say the Father is your God and Jesus is your god, but can you tell us how the two in nature or being differ in being your God?
WJ
Quote (t8 @ Feb. 22 2011,18:07) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 23 2011,08:19) The Father is not God because Jesus is in him? Is that what you are trying to say about the Father being in Jesus?
Why do you miss this point?
Here is a clue:We can be in God and be one with God, Jesus, each other.
So, are we God? Are we Jesus?
You get the idea now I hope.
t8Well lets tell the whole story.
We are in “Them” and “they” are in us! Get it? Big difference huh?
Take off the Arian glasses so you can see the truth.
WJ
Quote (t8 @ Feb. 22 2011,18:13) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 23 2011,02:26) When you say God spoke to you, who are you talking about? The Father? Did the Father speak to you without the Holy Spirit or Jesus?
When God speaks to me, it could be through any number of things before it gets to me.
t8You didn't answer the questions. You know that the Father does all things through the Son so why don't you say “They” spoke to me since you know that the Father, Jesus and the Holy Spirit is speaking to you, or do you?
When you say the “Lord” spoke to me which Lord are you talking about?
Come on t8, when God speaks to you how do you know the difference if it is the Father, Jesus or the Holy Spirit?
Why don't you say “They” spoke to me?
Blow that straw man down.
WJ
Quote (t8 @ Feb. 22 2011,18:17) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 23 2011,02:26) So the next time you should say THEY spoke to me and led me and saved me, right? Do you serve the Trinity, the Father, Son and the Holy Spirit or not?
We serve the one God who is the Father.
t8Again, you didn't answer the quesiton. How do you know the difference in who you serve since the Father does nothing without the Son and the Spirit proceeds from both?
When the Spirit speaks to you is it not Jesus and the Father Speaking to you? How do you know the difference or do you?
WJ
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 22 2011,20:53) What I have done is point out to you that even IF your preferred translation of 2:13 is the correct one, it is still only a case of Jesus being called “theos”.
MikeNo it is “Great theos” not just “theos”. Do you know of any other called “My Great theos and Savour”?
WJ
Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 23 2011,07:58) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 22 2011,14:32) Hi WJ, So if no Greek articles are used:
that means the speaker refers to neither
even though both God and Jesus are mentioned?
EDIt has nothing to do with “No” greek articles.
This is the NETs commentary on Tit 2:13 which explains the GSR.
The terms “God and Savior” both refer to the same person, Jesus Christ. This is one of the clearest statements in the NT concerning the deity of Christ. The construction in Greek is known as the Granville Sharp rule, named after the English philanthropist-linguist who first clearly articulated the rule in 1798. “Sharp pointed out that in the construction article-noun-καί-noun (where καί [kai] = “and”), when two nouns are singular, personal, and common (i.e., not proper names), they always had the same referent. Illustrations such as “the friend and brother,” “the God and Father,” etc. abound in the NT to prove Sharp’s point. The only issue is whether terms such as “God” and “Savior” could be considered common nouns as opposed to proper names. Sharp and others who followed (such as T. F. Middleton in his masterful The Doctrine of the Greek Article) demonstrated that a proper name in Greek was one that could not be pluralized. Since both “God” (θεός, qeos) and “savior” (σωτήρ, swthr) were occasionally found in the plural, they did not constitute proper names, and hence, do fit Sharp’s rule. “Although there have been 200 years of attempts to dislodge Sharp’s rule, all attempts have been futile. Sharp’s rule stands vindicated after all the dust has settled.” For more information on Sharp’s rule see ExSyn 270-78, esp. 276. See also 2 Pet 1:1 and Jude 4.
Once again the Greek rule has never been debunked therefore the proper rendering of Tit 2:13 is…
waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of “our great God and Savior Jesus Christ“,
WJ
Keith,Amen brother! The example from “The God and Father” proves Sharp's rule. The nouns “God” and “Father” are the same person. So the nouns “God” and “Savior” in reference to Jesus Christ are the same person.
Jack
Quote (t8 @ Feb. 22 2011,18:20) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 23 2011,02:26) Why do you only give the Father credit and not them?
Not true.We honour the true God as the Most High and we honour his son as the son and lamb, and we honour the prophets as servants of the Most High.
Credit is given where credit is due. We don't want to give false credit or honour.
t8You say you honour the True God as the Most high, but does that mean you do not honour Jesus as the Most high?
If Jesus is not honoured as the Most high as the Father then that means you give the Father more honour than the Son.
The scriptures tell us that we are to honour Jesus “even as” we honour the Father and that is in context with the fact that all judgment is committed to Jesus.
WJ
Mike said:
Quote He has not specifically been called “THE god” of anything in particular…,
What Bible are you reading Mike? You admitted that Jesus is called God both in John 20:28 and in Titus 2:13. Thomas said “The God of me….” And Titus 2:13 says,
“The God of us.”Yet you have the nerve to say that Jesus is not specifically called the God of anything in particular?
Jack
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Feb. 22 2011,21:15) Keith, considering that you have clearly said this, Quote Isn't that what Francis, D, and Jack and I have been saying…………. Everyone not just I are saying that just because Jesus is called God does not mean he is God.
……………is Titus 2:13 even worth your time? Even if there was a way you could prove beyond a shadow of a doubt that your preferred translation is the correct one, what does it really mean? That Jesus is called “god”? And what did you say about that in the above underlined part?Gotcha!
MikeWhat, are you stacking the commentary of non Biblical scholars like the biased Watch Tower commitee against 25 Biblical Hebrew and Greek scholars?
Ha Ha, you got nothing, as I said you also have admitted that “Someone being referred to as God could be God”. Got ya! Remember it is you that is trying to prove Jesus is not God though the scriptures say he is! Therefore according to your statement “Someone being referred to as God could be God” means that Paul could be referring to “The God”, right? Now you have to prove how he is not God and you have had plenty of time to do that and haven't.
You admit yourself that he is “Sovereign Ruler” over all and you admitted that he is “Your Ruler” because you have said he is your god which you say means “ruler”. So in what way could Paul not mean he is God since according to your definition he is “Sovereign theos” which would mean he is equal to the Father who is also “Sovereign theos”?
Is there anyone greater than “Sovereign theos”?
Watchtower is misleading because the sentence structure of 2 Thess 1:12 does not meet the GSR rule.
It has never been debunked and it still says that Jesus is our Great God and Savour not only that but verse 14 says…
Who gave himself for us, that “HE might redeem us” from all iniquity, and “purify unto himself” a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Jesus is our “Savour” or “The Savour” and not by proxy but by his own life and blood.
According to the Hebrew scriptures and Hebrew thought like Paul who was a Hebrew of the Hebrews, Only YHVH was their Savour who redeemned the children of Israel, the people of God for himself.
Paul had no shame in saying Jesus was his Great God and Savour because Jesus fit the bill.
WJ
Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,03:03) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 23 2011,07:58) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 22 2011,14:32) Hi WJ, So if no Greek articles are used:
that means the speaker refers to neither
even though both God and Jesus are mentioned?
EDIt has nothing to do with “No” greek articles.
This is the NETs commentary on Tit 2:13 which explains the GSR.
The terms “God and Savior” both refer to the same person, Jesus Christ. This is one of the clearest statements in the NT concerning the deity of Christ. The construction in Greek is known as the Granville Sharp rule, named after the English philanthropist-linguist who first clearly articulated the rule in 1798. “Sharp pointed out that in the construction article-noun-καί-noun (where καί [kai] = “and”), when two nouns are singular, personal, and common (i.e., not proper names), they always had the same referent. Illustrations such as “the friend and brother,” “the God and Father,” etc. abound in the NT to prove Sharp’s point. The only issue is whether terms such as “God” and “Savior” could be considered common nouns as opposed to proper names. Sharp and others who followed (such as T. F. Middleton in his masterful The Doctrine of the Greek Article) demonstrated that a proper name in Greek was one that could not be pluralized. Since both “God” (θεός, qeos) and “savior” (σωτήρ, swthr) were occasionally found in the plural, they did not constitute proper names, and hence, do fit Sharp’s rule. “Although there have been 200 years of attempts to dislodge Sharp’s rule, all attempts have been futile. Sharp’s rule stands vindicated after all the dust has settled.” For more information on Sharp’s rule see ExSyn 270-78, esp. 276. See also 2 Pet 1:1 and Jude 4.
Once again the Greek rule has never been debunked therefore the proper rendering of Tit 2:13 is…
waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of “our great God and Savior Jesus Christ“,
WJ
Keith,Amen brother! The example from “The God and Father” proves Sharp's rule. The nouns “God” and “Father” are the same person. So the nouns “God” and “Savior” in reference to Jesus Christ are the same person.
Jack
Hi Jack,So according to your logic, since no articles are used in this verse:
that means the speaker refers to neither not one or both
even though both God and Jesus are mentioned?1Tm.1:2 Unto Timothy, my own son in the faith: Grace, mercy, and peace,
from (no article here) God our Father and (no article here) Jesus Christ our Lord.
Certainly you lack consistency in what you present to us as your brand of 'truth'; no?Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Feb. 24 2011,04:50) Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,03:03) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Feb. 23 2011,07:58) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 22 2011,14:32) Hi WJ, So if no Greek articles are used:
that means the speaker refers to neither
even though both God and Jesus are mentioned?
EDIt has nothing to do with “No” greek articles.
This is the NETs commentary on Tit 2:13 which explains the GSR.
The terms “God and Savior” both refer to the same person, Jesus Christ. This is one of the clearest statements in the NT concerning the deity of Christ. The construction in Greek is known as the Granville Sharp rule, named after the English philanthropist-linguist who first clearly articulated the rule in 1798. “Sharp pointed out that in the construction article-noun-καί-noun (where καί [kai] = “and”), when two nouns are singular, personal, and common (i.e., not proper names), they always had the same referent. Illustrations such as “the friend and brother,” “the God and Father,” etc. abound in the NT to prove Sharp’s point. The only issue is whether terms such as “God” and “Savior” could be considered common nouns as opposed to proper names. Sharp and others who followed (such as T. F. Middleton in his masterful The Doctrine of the Greek Article) demonstrated that a proper name in Greek was one that could not be pluralized. Since both “God” (θεός, qeos) and “savior” (σωτήρ, swthr) were occasionally found in the plural, they did not constitute proper names, and hence, do fit Sharp’s rule. “Although there have been 200 years of attempts to dislodge Sharp’s rule, all attempts have been futile. Sharp’s rule stands vindicated after all the dust has settled.” For more information on Sharp’s rule see ExSyn 270-78, esp. 276. See also 2 Pet 1:1 and Jude 4.
Once again the Greek rule has never been debunked therefore the proper rendering of Tit 2:13 is…
waiting for our blessed hope, the appearing of the glory of “our great God and Savior Jesus Christ“,
WJ
Keith,Amen brother! The example from “The God and Father” proves Sharp's rule. The nouns “God” and “Father” are the same person. So the nouns “God” and “Savior” in reference to Jesus Christ are the same person.
Jack
Hi Jack,So according to your logic, since no articles are used in this verse:
that means the speaker refers to neither not one or both
even though both God and Jesus are mentioned?1Tm.1:2 Unto Timothy, my own son in the faith: Grace, mercy, and peace,
from (no article here) God our Father and (no article here) Jesus Christ our Lord.
Certainly you lack consistency in what you present to us as your brand of 'truth'; no?Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgWJ wrote:
Quote Who gave himself for us, that “HE might redeem us” from all iniquity, and “purify unto himself” a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Ed,See that word “redeem”? It means “to purchase.” Christ owns us as it CLEARLY says. He purchased ud FOR HIMSELF.
Got a problem with this?
Jack
Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,06:14) WJ wrote: Quote Who gave himself for us, that “HE might redeem us” from all iniquity, and “purify unto himself” a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Ed,See that word “redeem”? It means “to purchase.” Christ owns us as it CLEARLY says. He purchased ud FOR HIMSELF.
Got a problem with this?
Jack
Hi Jack,The problem I have is with your distortion of “the word” of God!
YHVH redeemed us back to himself through Christ our Lord!
Luke 1:68-70 Blessed be the LORD God of Israel (YHVH);
for he hath visited and redeemed his people, And hath
raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of
his servant David; As he spake by the mouth of his
holy prophets, which have been since the world began:
2Corinthians 5:19:To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling
the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them;
and hath committed unto us (HolySpirit)”The Word” of reconciliation.
You keep missing the connection that it's YHVH in Christ doing the works!
The Father (יהוה האלהים) that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (John 14:10)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Feb. 24 2011,06:49) Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,06:14) WJ wrote: Quote Who gave himself for us, that “HE might redeem us” from all iniquity, and “purify unto himself” a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Ed,See that word “redeem”? It means “to purchase.” Christ owns us as it CLEARLY says. He purchased ud FOR HIMSELF.
Got a problem with this?
Jack
Hi Jack,The problem I have is with your distortion of “the word” of God!
YHVH redeemed us back to himself through Christ our Lord!
Luke 1:68-70 Blessed be the LORD God of Israel (YHVH);
for he hath visited and redeemed his people, And hath
raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of
his servant David; As he spake by the mouth of his
holy prophets, which have been since the world began:
2Corinthians 5:19:To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling
the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them;
and hath committed unto us (HolySpirit)”The Word” of reconciliation.
You keep missing the connection that it's YHVH in Christ doing the works!
The Father (יהוה האלהים) that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (John 14:10)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
1. YHWH as you define Him was not in Christ when He hung on the cross. YHWH as you define Him forsook Christ and left Him alone to die.So you err on the synttax in 2 Corinthians 5. The reading, “God was in Christ” is misunderstood. It means, “God on the basis of Christ was reconciling the world to Himself.” Example: Jesus said, “This is the new covenant in my blood.” It means, “This is the new covenant on the basis of My blood.”
2. It is you who distorts the Word of God. You cite Luke 1:68 which says that the Lord God has visited us and redeemed us. Yet verse 78 identifies Him as the “Dayspring” who has visited us. The “Dayspring” is the Messiah! Therefore, the Lord God who has visited us in verse 68 is the Messiah.
3. You also ignore the harmony of the Gospels. Matthew's account says, “For you shall call His name Jesus. For HE shall save HIS people from their sins.”
4. Hebrew law required that a blood relative redeem a brother from slavery. YHWH as you define Him was not Israel's blood relative. Isaiah 44:6 says that YHWH is Israel's GOEL (blood relative-redeemer).
Only YHWH as I define Him was Israel's blood relative-Redeemer.
KJ
Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,07:23) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 24 2011,06:49) Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,06:14) WJ wrote: Quote Who gave himself for us, that “HE might redeem us” from all iniquity, and “purify unto himself” a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Ed,See that word “redeem”? It means “to purchase.” Christ owns us as it CLEARLY says. He purchased ud FOR HIMSELF.
Got a problem with this?
Jack
Hi Jack,The problem I have is with your distortion of “the word” of God!
YHVH redeemed us back to himself through Christ our Lord!
Luke 1:68-70 Blessed be the LORD God of Israel (YHVH);
for he hath visited and redeemed his people, And hath
raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of
his servant David; As he spake by the mouth of his
holy prophets, which have been since the world began:
2Corinthians 5:19:To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling
the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them;
and hath committed unto us (HolySpirit)”The Word” of reconciliation.
You keep missing the connection that it's YHVH in Christ doing the works!
The Father (יהוה האלהים) that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (John 14:10)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote YHWH as I define Him
1. YHWH as you define Him was not in Christ when He hung on the cross. YHWH as you define Him forsook Christ and left Him alone to die.So you err on the synttax in 2 Corinthians 5. The reading, “God was in Christ” is misunderstood. It means, “God on the basis of Christ was reconciling the world to Himself.” Example: Jesus said, “This is the new covenant in my blood.” It means, “This is the new covenant on the basis of My blood.”
KJ
Hi Jack,1) It is you who is defining YHVH 'falsely'!
Hebrew has NO “W” sound!Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending,
and remaining on him, the same is he
which baptizeth with the “HolySpirit”. (John 1:33)Eph.4:4-6 There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord,
one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all, who
is above all, and through all, and in you all.“ONE SPIRIT: GOD”=151
“YHVH” ↔ “God”…………………………………..(Rom. 1:20)
“Christ”(77) = “And Father”(77)…………………..(Coloss.2:9)
“Body”(46) = “of all”(46)……………………………(Matt.10:29)
“Witness”(109) = “in you all”(109)…………………….(Acts 17:29)Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
PS> For more on Theomatics… <a href="https://heavennet.net/cgi-bin/forum/ikonboard.cgi?
act=ST;f=20;t=2720;st=0″ target=”_blank”>Click Here
.Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,07:23) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 24 2011,06:49) Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,06:14) WJ wrote: Quote Who gave himself for us, that “HE might redeem us” from all iniquity, and “purify unto himself” a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Ed,See that word “redeem”? It means “to purchase.” Christ owns us as it CLEARLY says. He purchased ud FOR HIMSELF.
Got a problem with this?
Jack
Hi Jack,The problem I have is with your distortion of “the word” of God!
YHVH redeemed us back to himself through Christ our Lord!
Luke 1:68-70 Blessed be the LORD God of Israel (YHVH);
for he hath visited and redeemed his people, And hath
raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of
his servant David; As he spake by the mouth of his
holy prophets, which have been since the world began:
2Corinthians 5:19:To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling
the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them;
and hath committed unto us (HolySpirit)”The Word” of reconciliation.
You keep missing the connection that it's YHVH in Christ doing the works!
The Father (יהוה האלהים) that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (John 14:10)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org2. It is you who distorts the Word of God. You cite Luke 1:68 which says that the Lord God has visited us and redeemed us. Yet verse 78 identifies Him as the “Dayspring” who has visited us. The “Dayspring” is the Messiah! Therefore, the Lord God who has visited us in verse 68 is the Messiah.
KJ
Hi Jack,2) You keep trying to diminish the FACT that God was “IN” Jesus!
Phil:3:14 I press toward the mark for the prize of the high calling of God in Christ Jesus.Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,07:23) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 24 2011,06:49) Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,06:14) WJ wrote: Quote Who gave himself for us, that “HE might redeem us” from all iniquity, and “purify unto himself” a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Ed,See that word “redeem”? It means “to purchase.” Christ owns us as it CLEARLY says. He purchased ud FOR HIMSELF.
Got a problem with this?
Jack
Hi Jack,The problem I have is with your distortion of “the word” of God!
YHVH redeemed us back to himself through Christ our Lord!
Luke 1:68-70 Blessed be the LORD God of Israel (YHVH);
for he hath visited and redeemed his people, And hath
raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of
his servant David; As he spake by the mouth of his
holy prophets, which have been since the world began:
2Corinthians 5:19:To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling
the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them;
and hath committed unto us (HolySpirit)”The Word” of reconciliation.
You keep missing the connection that it's YHVH in Christ doing the works!
The Father (יהוה האלהים) that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (John 14:10)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org3. You also ignore the harmony of the Gospels. Matthew's account says, “For you shall call His name Jesus. For HE shall save HIS people from their sins.”
KJ
Hi Jack,The Savior(117) = God The Father(117) …(Isaiah 45:21)
3) You keep trying to diminish the FACT that God was “IN” Jesus!
The covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ. (Gal.3:17)Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,07:23) Quote (Ed J @ Feb. 24 2011,06:49) Quote (Kangaroo Jack Jr. @ Feb. 24 2011,06:14) WJ wrote: Quote Who gave himself for us, that “HE might redeem us” from all iniquity, and “purify unto himself” a peculiar people, zealous of good works.
Ed,See that word “redeem”? It means “to purchase.” Christ owns us as it CLEARLY says. He purchased ud FOR HIMSELF.
Got a problem with this?
Jack
Hi Jack,The problem I have is with your distortion of “the word” of God!
YHVH redeemed us back to himself through Christ our Lord!
Luke 1:68-70 Blessed be the LORD God of Israel (YHVH);
for he hath visited and redeemed his people, And hath
raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of
his servant David; As he spake by the mouth of his
holy prophets, which have been since the world began:
2Corinthians 5:19:To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling
the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them;
and hath committed unto us (HolySpirit)”The Word” of reconciliation.
You keep missing the connection that it's YHVH in Christ doing the works!
The Father (יהוה האלהים) that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. (John 14:10)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org4. Hebrew law required that a blood relative redeem a brother from slavery. YHWH as you define Him was not Israel's blood relative. Isaiah 44:6 says that YHWH is Israel's GOEL (blood relative-redeemer).
KJ
Hi Jack,4) You keep trying to diminish the FACT that God was “IN” Jesus!
To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself. (2Cor.5:19)Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
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