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- December 23, 2010 at 12:10 pm#229784Ed JParticipant
Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 23 2010,03:44) Quote (Tim Kraft @ Dec. 22 2010,20:31) Quote (kerwin @ Dec. 21 2010,18:00) To All,
This is an interpretation of John 1:1-18 based on the New International Version of Scripture I would like to hear tested according to godly principles.In the following interpretation Emanuel = God with us.
Quote 1 In the beginning was the Spirit of God, and the Spirit of God was with God, and the Spirit of God was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In him was life, and that life was God of all mankind. 5 Light shines in the darkness, and the darkness has not overcome it. 6 There was a man sent from God whose name was John. 7 He came as a witness to testify concerning the Emanuel, so that through him all might believe. 8 He himself was not the Emanuel; he came only as a witness to the Emanuel. 9 The true Emanuel that gives light to everyone was coming into the world. 10 He was in the world, and though the world was made through him, the world did not recognize him. 11 He came to that which was his own, but his own did not receive him. 12 Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God— 13 children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God.
14 The Spirit of God married flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his (The Spirit of God married to flesh’s) glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth. 15 (John testified concerning him. He cried out, saying, “This is the one I spoke about when I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.’”) 16 Out of his fullness we have all received grace in place of grace already given. 17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ (The Spirit of God married to flesh). 18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
Related scriptures are Isaiah 40, Isaiah 42:1-17, and Genesis 28:10-22.
Kerwin: Bless you; This is a beautiful interpretation of one of the greatest sets of verses in the gospels.It is exceptionally powerful when in v6 it switches from God to Emanuel (God with us). I believe Jesus was God with us. God was/is in Jesus as the spirit/words or Christ.
All, everyone, whosoever will believe, …he gave the right to become children of God….not born of flesh and blood but born of the spirit words of Jesus.
The spirit of God, the bride of Christ, married Jesus (the bridegroom) and dwelt among us. We see God by seeing the glory of Jesus full of grace and truth.
The law was given to Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.
Powerful scriptures of the union/marriage of God/Jesus and mankind. All ONE! That was a blessed post, IMO TK
We accept the words of Jesus deep within(the union of God and man) we become one in marriage.
Hi Tim,God's Signature (Click Here)
יהוה=26 (God's Name: YHVH pronounced YÄ-hä-vā)
YHVH=63 (God's Name יהוה translated into English)
Jesus=74 (God's Son's name in English is: “Joshua”)
HolySpirit=151 (“FATHER: The Word”: in all believers)
God The Father=117 (Representing “GOD”: יהוה האלהים)It's refreshing to see you Post “Bible Truth”(117)! Perhaps you're beginning to see: “Color”(63) equals “YHVH”(63)!
John 17:21-23 That they all may be one(in spirit); as thou, Father(HolySpirit), art in me(John 1:33-34),
and I in thee(1Pt.1:11), that they also may be one in us(John 14:23): that the world may believe that thou
hast sent me. And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; that they may be one, even as we are one:
I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may
know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.For Kerwin: Acts 13:2 As they(the early Church) ministered to “The LORD”(YHVH), and fasted,
the HolySpirit said, Separate me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereunto I have called them.Witnessing to the world in behalf of YHVH (Psalm 45:17)
117=יהוה האלהים (JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (AKJV Joshua 22:34 / Isaiah 60:13-15)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
Bump for TimDecember 23, 2010 at 3:25 pm#229785Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Dec. 22 2010,13:34) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Dec. 23 2010,04:04) Lets just completely rewrite the scriptures. If John meant for John 1:1 to read “Holy Spirit” he would have written it that way, don't you think?
Whats funny is you do not even believe the “Holy Spirit” is God Kerwin, or do you?
WJ
Hi WJ,John knew Jesus personally, if he
meant Jesus instead of the “HolySpirit”,
why would he not of said so; don't you think?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
HaHa EdBut he did say Jesus was the 'Word” who was made flesh or “Tabernacled” among us didn't he. The entire prologue is about Jesus, so it is totally “reckless” to interpret John 1:1 as the “Holy Spirit” was with God and was God.
Did John mean that 'all things” were created through the “Holy Spirit” and that the “Holy Spirit” was in the world and the world was made by the “Holy Spirit” and the world knew not the Holy Spirit?
It is entirely a corruption of the text to add the “Holy Spirit” in John 1:1.
John doesn't even mention the Holy Spirit until verses 32, 33 in which he states the “Holy Spirit” descended from heaven and abode on Jesus.
How does it make any sense that John would be saying the “Word” in John 1:1 and 14 is the “Holy Spirit”?
WJ
December 23, 2010 at 3:30 pm#229786Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 23 2010,03:05) That fits with the Spirit being with God and being God as well as with other scriptures.
Hi KerwinSo the “Spirit” is God but not a person?
WJ
December 23, 2010 at 3:43 pm#229787Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 23 2010,03:02) I thought that you and others would understand as I clearly wrote it was my interpretation based on the NIV scriptures.
Hi KerwinHow do you get the “Holy Spirit” is the “Word” based on the NIV?
For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through “Jesus Christ. No one has ever seen God, but God the One and Only,who is at the Father's side, has made him known. Now this was John's testimony when the Jews of Jerusalem sent priests and Levites to ask him who he was. He did not fail to confess, but confessed freely, “I am not the Christ (Messiah).” John 1:17-20 NIV
In context John is still speaking of Jesus here and the Holy Spirit is not mentioned untill verses 32, 33 as coming down from heaven.
Wow, to what extent will the “Untarians” go to twist the scripture?
WJ
December 23, 2010 at 3:48 pm#229789Worshipping JesusParticipantQuote (Ed J @ Dec. 22 2010,13:34) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Dec. 23 2010,04:04) Lets just completely rewrite the scriptures. If John meant for John 1:1 to read “Holy Spirit” he would have written it that way, don't you think?
Whats funny is you do not even believe the “Holy Spirit” is God Kerwin, or do you?
WJ
Hi WJ,John knew Jesus personally, if he
meant Jesus instead of the “HolySpirit”,
why would he not of said so; don't you think?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
EDDon't you think that if the “Word” that was made flesh and dwelt (tabernacled) among us was the 'Holy Spirit” then there would be no need for the “Holy Spirit” to descend and sit upon him later in the chapter in verses 32, 33?
WJ
December 24, 2010 at 1:22 am#229809Ed JParticipantQuote But he did say Jesus was the 'Word”
Hi WJ,Where exactly do you contend John said this?
December 24, 2010 at 1:34 am#229810Ed JParticipantQuote (WorshippingJesus @ Dec. 24 2010,01:25) Ed Did John mean that 'all things” were created through the “Holy Spirit” and that the “Holy Spirit” was in the world and the world was made by the “Holy Spirit” and the world knew not the Holy Spirit?
WJ
Hi WJ,Of course! Read the tread: HolySpirit is “GOD: The Father” of Jesus Christ! (Click Here)
2Cor.5:19 To wit, that God(HolySpirit) was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself,
not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.
Understand that 2Cor.5:19 is saying (in essence) the same thing as both John 1:1-11 & 1John 1:1-3.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgDecember 24, 2010 at 8:33 am#229831kerwinParticipantPierre,
I meant “made” and not “make”. I am sorry for my error. My source is this entry in the online lexicon at searchgodsword.org.
December 24, 2010 at 8:39 am#229832kerwinParticipantQuote (WorshippingJesus @ Dec. 23 2010,20:48) Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 22 2010,13:34) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Dec. 23 2010,04:04) Lets just completely rewrite the scriptures. If John meant for John 1:1 to read “Holy Spirit” he would have written it that way, don't you think?
Whats funny is you do not even believe the “Holy Spirit” is God Kerwin, or do you?
WJ
Hi WJ,John knew Jesus personally, if he
meant Jesus instead of the “HolySpirit”,
why would he not of said so; don't you think?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
EDDon't you think that if the “Word” that was made flesh and dwelt (tabernacled) among us was the 'Holy Spirit” then there would be no need for the “Holy Spirit” to descend and sit upon him later in the chapter in verses 32, 33?
WJ
Philo the Philosopher in the first century preached the same thing. It i believed his teachings have a common root with early Christians. Ad he is a Jew, he is also a Unitarian.December 24, 2010 at 8:58 am#229834terrariccaParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 25 2010,01:33) Pierre, I meant “made” and not “make”. I am sorry for my error. My source is this entry in the online lexicon at searchgodsword.org.
kerwinyou have to take a break ,you start to see things who are not.
WERE DO YOU SEE “MARRIED”
The New Testament Greek Lexicon
Strong's Number: 1096 encodedOriginalWord
Original Word Word Origin
γίνομαι a prolongation and middle voice form of a primary verb
Transliterated Word Phonetic Spelling
ginomai ghin'-om-ahee MediaPlayer
Parts of Speech TDNT
Verb 1:681,117
Definition
to become, i.e. to come into existence, begin to be, receive being
to become, i.e. to come to pass, happen
of events
to arise, appear in history, come upon the stage
of men appearing in public
to be made, finished
of miracles, to be performed, wrought
to become, be madeDecember 24, 2010 at 6:20 pm#229850Ed JParticipantQuote (WorshippingJesus @ Dec. 24 2010,01:48) Quote (Ed J @ Dec. 22 2010,13:34) Quote (WorshippingJesus @ Dec. 23 2010,04:04) Lets just completely rewrite the scriptures. If John meant for John 1:1 to read “Holy Spirit” he would have written it that way, don't you think?
Whats funny is you do not even believe the “Holy Spirit” is God Kerwin, or do you?
WJ
Hi WJ,John knew Jesus personally, if he
meant Jesus instead of the “HolySpirit”,
why would he not of said so; don't you think?God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
EDDon't you think that if the “Word” that was made flesh and dwelt (tabernacled) among us was the 'Holy Spirit” then there would be no need for the “Holy Spirit” to descend and sit upon him later in the chapter in verses 32, 33?
WJ
Hi WJ,That same “HolySpirit”=151(John 1:32-33)
was sent on “Pentecost”=117(John 14:23)!God's Signature
יהוה=26 (God's Name: YHVH pronounced YÄ-hä-vā)
YHVH=63 (God's Name יהוה translated into English)
Jesus=74 (God's Son's name in English is: “Joshua”)
HolySpirit=151 (“FATHER: The Word”: in all believers)
God The Father=117 (Representing “GOD”: יהוה האלהים)Witnessing to a worldwide audience in behalf of YHVH!
117=יהוה האלהים (JEHOVAH GOD) YÄ-hä-vā hä ĔL-ō-Hêêm!
Ed J (Isaiah 49:16 / Isaiah 60:14 / Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org (Ecl.9:12-16)December 25, 2010 at 1:41 am#229903mikeboll64BlockedQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 23 2010,19:03) Mike Boll, The Messiah is the one predestined and anointed by God to be King of his entire kingdom. He is also called God is with us because God through the Holy Spirit lives within him and by adoption through the Anointed lives within us. Jesus is the Son of God because he is the one God chose to have the fullness of his Spirit reside in and it is only through the Son that we also receive the spirit of holiness. John did in fact testify of the coming of God among us and thus about the coming of Jesus who is the means God chose to accomplish that purpose.
Jesus tells us that the Father is in him through the Holy Spirit and he is in the Father through the same Holy Spirit to let us know what should be obvious by Jesus’ words and actions. That is that God uses Jesus’ body to perform his righteous actions and words and Jesus chooses to submit his will to God’s and so do all that is right.
It is also true that Jesus sent the Holy Spirit that was in him to his disciples after his death, resurrection, and ascension which is why he asked his Father and our Father that his students be one as he and the father are one, God and Jesus in us and us in God and Jesus. He already had the Holy Spirit which is why stated he was in the Father and the Father was in him in the very same prayer. Thus truly God is with us.
Okay Kerwin,You lost me there. Let's analyze your interpretation verse by verse. Maybe we can find some scriptures of support or rebuttal.
Quote 1 In the beginning was the Spirit of God, and the Spirit of God was with God, and the Spirit of God was God.
I have no problem with part a. But part b says, “the Spirit of God was with God”. Now, according to all logic, the only way something can be WITH something else is if those two somethings are not the same thing. At least that's how I understand it……..maybe I'm wrong. Could you show me an instance in ANY literature of mankind where something is said to be WITH something, and the two somethings are the same thing?I mean, Kerwin cannot be WITH Kerwin. I cannot be WITH myself. The apple pie on the counter cannot be WITH the apple pie on the counter…………unless there are TWO of them.
What are your thoughts on verse 1, part b?
peace and love,
mikeDecember 25, 2010 at 2:22 am#229907kerwinParticipantPierre,
Look down a little further to the section covering translated words in the King James Version. One example of when it is translated as such in that version is Romans 7:3 and is translated as “joined” in the New American Standard version of the same scripture..
December 25, 2010 at 2:39 am#229908terrariccaParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 25 2010,19:22) Pierre, Look down a little further to the section covering translated words in the King James Version. One example of when it is translated as such in that version is Romans 7:3 and is translated as “joined” in the New American Standard version of the same scripture..
Kerwinsorry I wen and see,but there is something wrong ,how is it that that word can mean so many different things,??
and so different as black and withe,
there must be misunderstanding,?
so if you see strait in this ,well walk me trough.
Pierre
December 25, 2010 at 5:17 am#229925mikeboll64BlockedStrong's Greek Lexicon Search Results
Result of search for “ginomai”:
1096. ginomai ghin'-om-ahee a prolongation and middle voice form of a primary verb;
to cause to be (“gen”-erate), i.e. (reflexively) to become (come into being), used with great latitude (literal, figurative, intensive, etc.):–arise, be assembled, be(-come, -fall, -have self), be brought (to pass), (be) come (to pass), continue, be divided, draw, be ended, fall, be finished, follow, be found, be fulfilled, + God forbid, grow, happen, have, be kept, be made, be married, be ordained to be, partake, pass, be performed, be published, require, seem, be showed, X soon as it was, sound, be taken, be turned, use, wax, will, would, be wrought.
Do you see what Kerwin is saying now, Pierre? It's translated as “married” three times in the KJV. John 1:14 is NOT one of them, though!
mike
December 25, 2010 at 7:33 am#229926kerwinParticipantMike Boll,
Isn't is strange that you find it acceptable to disagree with translators when their translation disagrees with your conclusions and yet absolutely support them when you believe their translation agrees with your understanding. Take 1 Timothy 2:5 which calls Jesus a human being after he ascended to heaven. Are you now saying the translators were correct in their choice.
Find a better reason to object as this makes you look like a hypocrite and you are called to better things.
December 25, 2010 at 7:50 am#229929terrariccaParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Dec. 25 2010,22:17) Strong's Greek Lexicon Search Results Result of search for “ginomai”:
1096. ginomai ghin'-om-ahee a prolongation and middle voice form of a primary verb;
to cause to be (“gen”-erate), i.e. (reflexively) to become (come into being), used with great latitude (literal, figurative, intensive, etc.):–arise, be assembled, be(-come, -fall, -have self), be brought (to pass), (be) come (to pass), continue, be divided, draw, be ended, fall, be finished, follow, be found, be fulfilled, + God forbid, grow, happen, have, be kept, be made, be married, be ordained to be, partake, pass, be performed, be published, require, seem, be showed, X soon as it was, sound, be taken, be turned, use, wax, will, would, be wrought.
Do you see what Kerwin is saying now, Pierre? It's translated as “married” three times in the KJV. John 1:14 is NOT one of them, though!
mike
December 25, 2010 at 7:54 am#229930kerwinParticipantPierre,
I agree that the many English words translators ascribe as synonyms to “ginomai” seems excessive. I believe there is probably some basic idea they all hold in common. I have not looked into that yet. I do know that due to lack of knowledge in the field I am forced to rely on the judgment of experts to a large extent.
I point that Jesus basically states that he and God are joined when he teaches us that he is in the Father and the Father is in him, John 10:38 and John 14:10-11. We are also taught in a like manner it is the Holy Spirit that joins us to Jesus and so through him to God, John 17:21. Marriage is used as an example of the later joining, 2 Corinthians 11:12 and Ephesians 5:23-25.
December 25, 2010 at 7:59 am#229931terrariccaParticipantQuote (kerwin @ Dec. 26 2010,00:33) Mike Boll, Isn't is strange that you find it acceptable to disagree with translators when their translation disagrees with your conclusions and yet absolutely support them when you believe their translation agrees with your understanding. Take 1 Timothy 2:5 which calls Jesus a human being after he ascended to heaven. Are you now saying the translators were correct in their choice.
Find a better reason to object as this makes you look like a hypocrite and you are called to better things.
kerwinI don't know why you get upset with Mike he help me like i will do for him,even for you,
you have to understand something ,my understanding of scritures does not come from digging, but by from receiving
info from the inside of me and prayers ,so you keep digging like the 5 foolish virgin and buy your knowledge so you will be prepared,
Pierre
December 25, 2010 at 8:14 am#229934kerwinParticipantWorshiping Jesus.
A person's body or soul are in certain cases refereed to as the person themselves.
In the case of the Spirit we are told that Jesus and God are in us when the Spirit is in us. God acts and speaks through his Spirit and so the Spirit is God among us. Jesus as the root dwelling place o the Spirit has the same descriptive title.
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