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  • #348919
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (kerwin @ June 28 2013,02:39)

    Quote (abe @ June 28 2013,00:14)

    Quote (kerwin @ June 27 2013,10:07)
    To all,

    What are the meanings of god?


    Hi Kerwin,

    After reading some of these posts, I am losing the meaning of the word. What does brainwashing  MEAN?

    Peace brother…………


    Abe,

    Quote
    god  (gd)
    n.
    1. God
    a. A being conceived as the perfect, omnipotent, omniscient originator and ruler of the universe, the principal object of faith and worship in monotheistic religions.
    b. The force, effect, or a manifestation or aspect of this being.
    2. A being of supernatural powers or attributes, believed in and worshiped by a people, especially a male deity thought to control some part of nature or reality.
    3. An image of a supernatural being; an idol.
    4. One that is worshiped, idealized, or followed: Money was their god.
    5. A very handsome man.
    6. A powerful ruler or despot.

    Some here do not believe the one true God is omnipresent.  These same ones do not believe angels should be worshiped.  So either they are claiming God is ” A being of supernatural powers or attributes, believed in and worshiped by a people, especially a male deity thought to control some part of nature or reality.” and and angels are “A powerful ruler or despot.” or that both God and the angels are “A powerful ruler or despot.”

    Note: I am sure they are not using “god” in the sense of “A very handsome man.”


    K

    Quote
    Some here do not believe the one true God is omnipresent

    and also many do not understand the meaning of it ;

    it is obvious to me that God as omnipresence ,HE CREATED ALL THINGS,SO IF YOU LOOK AT YOUR SELVES AND ALL AROUND YOU, YOU ONLY CAN ONLY SEE THE CREATION OF GOD,BUT YOU CAN ALSO SEE WHAT MEN HAVE DONE OR DO NOT THE SAME THING

    Col 1:23 if you continue in your faith, established and firm, not moved from the hope held out in the gospel. This is the gospel that you heard and that has been proclaimed to every creature under heaven

    #348920
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    So you can LEARN, Eddy.  That's why.

    I just read the posts from Gene, Ed, Abe, and Kerwin.  And Kerwin seems to be the ONLY one who taking this SERIOUSLY – as a man after truth SHOULD take it.

    The rest of you are making personal slams, jokes, and telling yourselves lies.

    And NONE of you have yet explained to me how David, speaking by the Holy Spirit, was able to say Jehovah created mankind a little lower than the elohim, if Jehovah is LITERALLY the ONLY elohim in existence.

    Gene's going all off course, because he doesn't want to deal with the truth of Psalm 8:5.  Ed is in complete denial.  And Abe is making jokes about the SERIOUS question Kerwin offered up.

    So far, Ed is the only one who has even offered an answer to my question about Psalm 8:5.  His answer is that the word “elohim” means different things at different times.  So his answer is that in Psalm 8:5, David used that special elohim word that means “angels” – even though David was well aware of the Hebrew word “mal'ak”, which actually DOES refer to angels.  Okay, before I move on to some other scriptures, let me nip Ed's point in the bud:

    Ed, Jehovah is the “elohim OF elohim”, right?  Will you seriously claim that the first “elohim” means one thing, and the second “elohim” means a DIFFERENT thing?

    If so, then address these points:

    1.  Tell me what particular beings are meant by the second “elohim” in that phrase.

    2.  Show me a similar phrase where the first thing mentioned is something different than the second thing mentioned.  For example:

    He is the boss of bosses.  Does the first word “boss” refer to the same thing as the second word “boss”?

    He is the king of kings.  Does the first word “king” refer to the same thing as the second word “king”?

    He is the lord of lords.  Does the first word “lord” refer to the same thing as the second word “lord”?

    Are you beginning to see how a phrase like “god of gods” works, Ed?  The first person mentioned is higher than the second person (or people) mentioned, but they are both in the same CATEGORY, and the first word has the same definition as the second word.

    Are you able to show me any case in the history of man where the same word is used for the first person and the second person, but the word means one thing for the first person, and something COMPLETELY DIFFERENT for the second person (people)? If you cannot, then are you willing to ACCEPT the truth of what I've just showed you, and ACKNOWLEDGE it?

    #348927
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ June 27 2013,07:46)
    God is not just mighty one as you falsely assume, it is more that that………….


    Agreed, Gene.

    Jehovah is the Almighty one. Jehovah is the mighty one OF all the other mighty ones. Jehovah is the MOST HIGH mighty one. Jehovah is the ONLY mighty one we are to worship and serve. Jehovah is the ONLY mighty one who created all things.

    But the word “elohim” still just means “mighty one”.

    Gene, you have failed to tell me who the “elohim” were in Psalm 8:5. That's okay if you can't answer my questions, but don't expect me to go off track by addressing each point in the novel you posted, okay?

    If you can't answer my questions, you and Abe can just keep paying attention to me, Kerwin, Pierre, and Ed for a while. In that way, you can learn some scriptural truths in your silence.

    After all, God did give us two ears and only one mouth for a reason, right? :)

    #348938
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,10:13)
    And NONE of you have yet explained to me how David, speaking by the Holy Spirit, was able to say Jehovah created mankind a little lower than the elohim, if Jehovah is LITERALLY the ONLY elohim in existence.


    Hi Mike,

    I take every response seriously. And I have explained this to you more than once or twice, but you are not listening.
    “EL-o-heem” does not define as “GOD” only, but as any one of the following instead (depending on the context):

    1. GOD
    2. Angels
    3. Leaders
    4. Magistrates

    You are fixated on the definition of “EL-o-heem” to mean 'mighty-one'.
    And then you change it's meaning to 'gods' as it suites your fancy. That is
    yet another inconsistency that you create in order to make Jesus into 'a god'.

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #348939
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,10:13)
    So you can LEARN, Eddy.  That's why.

    I just read the posts from Gene, Ed, Abe, and Kerwin.  And Kerwin seems to be the ONLY one who taking this SERIOUSLY – as a man after truth SHOULD take it.

    The rest of you are making personal slams, jokes, and telling yourselves lies.

    And NONE of you have yet explained to me how David, speaking by the Holy Spirit, was able to say Jehovah created mankind a little lower than the elohim, if Jehovah is LITERALLY the ONLY elohim in existence.

    Gene's going all off course, because he doesn't want to deal with the truth of Psalm 8:5.  Ed is in complete denial.  And Abe is making jokes about the SERIOUS question Kerwin offered up.

    So far, Ed is the only one who has even offered an answer to my question about Psalm 8:5.  His answer is that the word “elohim” means different things at different times.  So his answer is that in Psalm 8:5, David used that special elohim word that means “angels” – even though David was well aware of the Hebrew word “mal'ak”, which actually DOES refer to angels.  Okay, before I move on to some other scriptures, let me nip Ed's point in the bud:

    Ed, Jehovah is the “elohim OF elohim”, right?  Will you seriously claim that the first “elohim” means one thing, and the second “elohim” means a DIFFERENT thing?

    If so, then address these points:

    1.  Tell me what particular beings are meant by the second “elohim” in that phrase.

    2.  Show me a similar phrase where the first thing mentioned is something different than the second thing mentioned.  For example:

    He is the boss of bosses.  Does the first word “boss” refer to the same thing as the second word “boss”?

    He is the king of kings.  Does the first word “king” refer to the same thing as the second word “king”?

    He is the lord of lords.  Does the first word “lord” refer to the same thing as the second word “lord”?

    Are you beginning to see how a phrase like “god of gods” works, Ed?  The first person mentioned is higher than the second person (or people) mentioned, but they are both in the same CATEGORY, and the first word has the same definition as the second word.

    Are you able to show me any case in the history of man where the same word is used for the first person and the second person, but the word means one thing for the first person, and something COMPLETELY DIFFERENT for the second person (people)?  If you cannot, then are you willing to ACCEPT the truth of what I've just showed you, and ACKNOWLEDGE it?


    Leader of Leaders – definition #3.

    #348940
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,10:38)

    Quote (Gene Balthrop @ June 27 2013,07:46)
    God is not just mighty one as you falsely assume, it is more that that………….


    Agreed, Gene.

    Jehovah is the Almighty one.  Jehovah is the mighty one OF all the other mighty ones.  Jehovah is the MOST HIGH mighty one.  Jehovah is the ONLY mighty one we are to worship and serve.  Jehovah is the ONLY mighty one who created all things.

    But the word “elohim” still just means “mighty one”.  

    Gene, you have failed to tell me who the “elohim” were in Psalm 8:5.  That's okay if you can't answer my questions, but don't expect me to go off track by addressing each point in the novel you posted, okay?

    If you can't answer my questions, you and Abe can just keep paying attention to me, Kerwin, Pierre, and Ed for a while.  In that way, you can learn some scriptural truths in your silence.

    After all, God did give us two ears and only one mouth for a reason, right?  :)


    That's so we can listen twice as much as we speak. :D

    #348943
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ June 27 2013,19:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,10:13)
     Okay, before I move on to some other scriptures, let me nip Ed's point in the bud:

    Ed, Jehovah is the “elohim OF elohim”, right?  Will you seriously claim that the first “elohim” means one thing, and the second “elohim” means a DIFFERENT thing?

    If so, then address these points:

    1.  Tell me what particular beings are meant by the second “elohim” in that phrase.

    2.  Show me a similar phrase where the first thing mentioned is something different than the second thing mentioned.  For example:

    He is the boss of bosses.  Does the first word “boss” refer to the same thing as the second word “boss”?

    He is the king of kings.  Does the first word “king” refer to the same thing as the second word “king”?

    He is the lord of lords.  Does the first word “lord” refer to the same thing as the second word “lord”?

    Are you beginning to see how a phrase like “god of gods” works, Ed?  The first person mentioned is higher than the second person (or people) mentioned, but they are both in the same CATEGORY, and the first word has the same definition as the second word.

    Are you able to show me any case in the history of man where the same word is used for the first person and the second person, but the word means one thing for the first person, and something COMPLETELY DIFFERENT for the second person (people)?  If you cannot, then are you willing to ACCEPT the truth of what I've just showed you, and ACKNOWLEDGE it?


    Leader of Leaders   –  definition #3.


    And does the first word “leader” have a DIFFERENT definition than the second word “leader”? YES or NO?

    #348944
    mikeboll64
    Blocked

    Quote (Ed J @ June 27 2013,19:20)
    And I have explained this to you more than once or twice, but you are not listening.


    Oh I've been listening, Ed. That's why we're having the discussion in the post above this one. I aim to show you the errors of your ways.

    #348951
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,12:38)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 27 2013,19:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,10:13)
     Okay, before I move on to some other scriptures, let me nip Ed's point in the bud:

    Ed, Jehovah is the “elohim OF elohim”, right?  Will you seriously claim that the first “elohim” means one thing, and the second “elohim” means a DIFFERENT thing?

    If so, then address these points:

    1.  Tell me what particular beings are meant by the second “elohim” in that phrase.

    2.  Show me a similar phrase where the first thing mentioned is something different than the second thing mentioned.  For example:

    He is the boss of bosses.  Does the first word “boss” refer to the same thing as the second word “boss”?

    He is the king of kings.  Does the first word “king” refer to the same thing as the second word “king”?

    He is the lord of lords.  Does the first word “lord” refer to the same thing as the second word “lord”?

    Are you beginning to see how a phrase like “god of gods” works, Ed?  The first person mentioned is higher than the second person (or people) mentioned, but they are both in the same CATEGORY, and the first word has the same definition as the second word.

    Are you able to show me any case in the history of man where the same word is used for the first person and the second person, but the word means one thing for the first person, and something COMPLETELY DIFFERENT for the second person (people)?  If you cannot, then are you willing to ACCEPT the truth of what I've just showed you, and ACKNOWLEDGE it?


    Leader of Leaders   –  definition #3.


    And does the first word “leader” have a DIFFERENT definition than the second word “leader”?  YES or NO?


    Hi Mike,

    I would say no, the only difference is that in English the
    translators had to pluralize a word that was already a pluralized
    word; this was to help us to understand better what YHVH was saying.

    That is why in other places in the bible YHVH uses different wording, such as:
              (I already know that you are going to clip this next part out)

    1. KING of Kings
    2. LORD of Lords
    3. The Most high
    4. ect…
           
    “EL-o-heem of EL-o-heems” is one such example.
    That DOES NOT mean there are little gods and BIG Gods.
                                                                                       
    EL-o-heem bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #348959
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2013,07:59)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,12:38)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 27 2013,19:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,10:13)
     Okay, before I move on to some other scriptures, let me nip Ed's point in the bud:

    Ed, Jehovah is the “elohim OF elohim”, right?  Will you seriously claim that the first “elohim” means one thing, and the second “elohim” means a DIFFERENT thing?

    If so, then address these points:

    1.  Tell me what particular beings are meant by the second “elohim” in that phrase.

    2.  Show me a similar phrase where the first thing mentioned is something different than the second thing mentioned.  For example:

    He is the boss of bosses.  Does the first word “boss” refer to the same thing as the second word “boss”?

    He is the king of kings.  Does the first word “king” refer to the same thing as the second word “king”?

    He is the lord of lords.  Does the first word “lord” refer to the same thing as the second word “lord”?

    Are you beginning to see how a phrase like “god of gods” works, Ed?  The first person mentioned is higher than the second person (or people) mentioned, but they are both in the same CATEGORY, and the first word has the same definition as the second word.

    Are you able to show me any case in the history of man where the same word is used for the first person and the second person, but the word means one thing for the first person, and something COMPLETELY DIFFERENT for the second person (people)?  If you cannot, then are you willing to ACCEPT the truth of what I've just showed you, and ACKNOWLEDGE it?


    Leader of Leaders   –  definition #3.


    And does the first word “leader” have a DIFFERENT definition than the second word “leader”?  YES or NO?


    Hi Mike,

    I would say no, the only difference is that in English the
    translators had to pluralize a word that was already a pluralized
    word; this was to help us to understand better what YHVH was saying.

    That is why in other places in the bible YHVH uses different wording, such as:
              (I already know that you are going to clip this next part out)

    1. KING of Kings
    2. LORD of Lords
    3. The Most high
    4. ect…
           
    “EL-o-heem of EL-o-heems” is one such example.
    That DOES NOT mean there are little gods and BIG Gods.
                                                                                       
    EL-o-heem bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    Quote
    That DOES NOT mean there are little gods and BIG Gods.

    :D :D good try ; faulty example ;scriptures says ;the GOD of gods ;so it means HE HIS THE ONLY GOD OVER ALL OTHER GODS THAT MAY BE THERE OR EXISTING

    #348962
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ June 28 2013,13:21)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2013,07:59)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,12:38)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 27 2013,19:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,10:13)
     Okay, before I move on to some other scriptures, let me nip Ed's point in the bud:

    Ed, Jehovah is the “elohim OF elohim”, right?  Will you seriously claim that the first “elohim” means one thing, and the second “elohim” means a DIFFERENT thing?

    If so, then address these points:

    1.  Tell me what particular beings are meant by the second “elohim” in that phrase.

    2.  Show me a similar phrase where the first thing mentioned is something different than the second thing mentioned.  For example:

    He is the boss of bosses.  Does the first word “boss” refer to the same thing as the second word “boss”?

    He is the king of kings.  Does the first word “king” refer to the same thing as the second word “king”?

    He is the lord of lords.  Does the first word “lord” refer to the same thing as the second word “lord”?

    Are you beginning to see how a phrase like “god of gods” works, Ed?  The first person mentioned is higher than the second person (or people) mentioned, but they are both in the same CATEGORY, and the first word has the same definition as the second word.

    Are you able to show me any case in the history of man where the same word is used for the first person and the second person, but the word means one thing for the first person, and something COMPLETELY DIFFERENT for the second person (people)?  If you cannot, then are you willing to ACCEPT the truth of what I've just showed you, and ACKNOWLEDGE it?


    Leader of Leaders   –  definition #3.


    And does the first word “leader” have a DIFFERENT definition than the second word “leader”?  YES or NO?


    Hi Mike,

    I would say no, the only difference is that in English the
    translators had to pluralize a word that was already a pluralized
    word; this was to help us to understand better what YHVH was saying.

    That is why in other places in the bible YHVH uses different wording, such as:
              (I already know that you are going to clip this next part out)

    1. KING of Kings
    2. LORD of Lords
    3. The Most high
    4. ect…
           
    “EL-o-heem of EL-o-heems” is one such example.
    That DOES NOT mean there are little gods and BIG Gods.
                                                                                       
    EL-o-heem bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    Quote
    That DOES NOT mean there are little gods and BIG Gods.

    :D  :D good try ; faulty example ;scriptures says ;the GOD of gods  ;so it means HE HIS THE ONLY GOD OVER ALL OTHER GODS THAT MAY BE THERE OR EXISTING


    “EL-o-heem of EL-o-heems” means “LEADER of Leaders”
     it does not mean there are Big Gods and little gods.

    #348964
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2013,08:30)

    Quote (terraricca @ June 28 2013,13:21)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2013,07:59)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,12:38)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 27 2013,19:22)

    Quote (mikeboll64 @ June 28 2013,10:13)
     Okay, before I move on to some other scriptures, let me nip Ed's point in the bud:

    Ed, Jehovah is the “elohim OF elohim”, right?  Will you seriously claim that the first “elohim” means one thing, and the second “elohim” means a DIFFERENT thing?

    If so, then address these points:

    1.  Tell me what particular beings are meant by the second “elohim” in that phrase.

    2.  Show me a similar phrase where the first thing mentioned is something different than the second thing mentioned.  For example:

    He is the boss of bosses.  Does the first word “boss” refer to the same thing as the second word “boss”?

    He is the king of kings.  Does the first word “king” refer to the same thing as the second word “king”?

    He is the lord of lords.  Does the first word “lord” refer to the same thing as the second word “lord”?

    Are you beginning to see how a phrase like “god of gods” works, Ed?  The first person mentioned is higher than the second person (or people) mentioned, but they are both in the same CATEGORY, and the first word has the same definition as the second word.

    Are you able to show me any case in the history of man where the same word is used for the first person and the second person, but the word means one thing for the first person, and something COMPLETELY DIFFERENT for the second person (people)?  If you cannot, then are you willing to ACCEPT the truth of what I've just showed you, and ACKNOWLEDGE it?


    Leader of Leaders   –  definition #3.


    And does the first word “leader” have a DIFFERENT definition than the second word “leader”?  YES or NO?


    Hi Mike,

    I would say no, the only difference is that in English the
    translators had to pluralize a word that was already a pluralized
    word; this was to help us to understand better what YHVH was saying.

    That is why in other places in the bible YHVH uses different wording, such as:
              (I already know that you are going to clip this next part out)

    1. KING of Kings
    2. LORD of Lords
    3. The Most high
    4. ect…
           
    “EL-o-heem of EL-o-heems” is one such example.
    That DOES NOT mean there are little gods and BIG Gods.
                                                                                       
    EL-o-heem bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    Quote
    That DOES NOT mean there are little gods and BIG Gods.

    :D  :D good try ; faulty example ;scriptures says ;the GOD of gods  ;so it means HE HIS THE ONLY GOD OVER ALL OTHER GODS THAT MAY BE THERE OR EXISTING


    “EL-o-heem of EL-o-heems” means “LEADER of Leaders”
     it does not mean there are Big Gods and little gods.


    edj

    you are hard to understand simple things :D :D :D

    leader of leaders = God of gods= lord of lords = king of kings or almighty one over all almighty ones

    so to resume this is that GOD ALMIGHTY THE FATHER HIS THE GOD OF ALL GODS AND THE LORD OF ALL LORDS ,

    IN THIS WAY TELL ME WHO IS HIGHER THAN THE FATHER ????

    #348969
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Pierre,

    When the bible calls YHVH the most high, it simply
    means that none that are higher. (ref. Psalm 83:18)

    “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH
     (YHVH), art the most high over all the earth.” (Psalms 83:18)
    That DOES NOT mean that men are high – do you agree?         (<– please answer)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #348970
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2013,14:06)
    Hi Pierre,

    When the bible calls YHVH the most high, it simply
    means that none that are higher. (ref. Psalm 83:18)

    “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH
     (YHVH), art the most high over all the earth.” (Psalms 83:18)
    That DOES NOT mean that men are high – do you agree?         (<– please answer)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Pierre, please don't dodge my question.

    #348982
    abe
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 27 2013,19:06)
    Hi Pierre,

    When the bible calls YHVH the most high, it simply
    means that none that are higher. (ref. Psalm 83:18)

    “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH
     (YHVH), art the most high over all the earth.” (Psalms 83:18)
    That DOES NOT mean that men are high – do you agree?         (<– please answer)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Bump.

    #348995
    Ed J
    Participant

    Hi Abe,

    Ha ha, I take it you agree with my premise then – right?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

    #349008
    abe
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 27 2013,20:41)
    Hi Abe,

    Ha ha, I take it you agree with my premise then – right?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    Hi Ed,

    Amen brother.

    #349032
    terraricca
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2013,09:06)
    Hi Pierre,

    When the bible calls YHVH the most high, it simply
    means that none that are higher. (ref. Psalm 83:18)

    “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH
     (YHVH), art the most high over all the earth.” (Psalms 83:18)
    That DOES NOT mean that men are high – do you agree?         (<– please answer)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    why you did not my question ???

    the answer would be the same ,NO ???

    you like to show control to the weak ,

    so answer my question and see if I need to answer yours

    #349036
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (terraricca @ June 28 2013,23:14)

    Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2013,09:06)
    Hi Pierre,

    When the bible calls YHVH the most high, it simply
    means that none that are higher. (ref. Psalm 83:18)

    “That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH
     (YHVH), art the most high over all the earth.” (Psalms 83:18)
    That DOES NOT mean that men are high – do you agree?         (<– please answer)

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org


    edj

    why you did not my question ???

    the answer would be the same ,NO ???

    you like to show control to the weak ,

    so answer my question and see if I need to answer yours


    Whats your question?

    And yes, I still want you to answer mine.

    #349037
    Ed J
    Participant

    Quote (Ed J @ June 28 2013,23:28)
    edj

    you like to show control to the weak ,


    Hi Pierre,

    Is that an admission that your position is weak?

    God bless
    Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
    http://www.holycitybiblecode.org

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