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Hi ED,
LORD MEANS OWNER?
Was Joseph the OWNER of PHAROAH’s kingdom or just placed in charge of it?The Roman centurion understood the authority that Jesus had.
Authority under God, the OWNER
Hi ED,
“God was not with him as in being for him, no God was with him as in WITHIN HIM!”
Indeed God was within him as Spirit as was the Word. They were within him.
But his anointing is the same as occurred with the apostles and those given the Spirit.
God was with Jesus as his father and brought him up to obey the Law.Heb12, Is 42
Hi ED
Where is Hagar called a sinner in the Bible? or mother of sinners?
“For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia, and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children.
But [The New Jerusalem] (ref Rev.21-2-3) which is above is free, which is the (spiritual) mother of us all.” (Gal 4:25-26)“We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself,
and that wicked one toucheth him not.” (1 John 5:18)B’shem
YHVHHi ED,
LORD MEANS OWNER?
Was Joseph the OWNER of PHAROAH’s kingdom or just placed in charge of it?Lord means master as well as Owner.
Joseph was made master, Jesus was born owner.____________
God bless
Ed JHi EDJ
“For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia, and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children.
But [The New Jerusalem] (ref Rev.21-2-3) which is above is free, which is the (spiritual) mother of us all.” (Gal 4:25-26)“We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself,
and that wicked one toucheth him not.” (1 John 5:18)You did not find the scripture that says Hagar is a sinner? I didn’t ask for conjecture, metaphor or analogy I asked for scripture, it’s okay if you can’t find it, maybe you can present a better argument
Hi ED,
If he was owner why would he be given a kingdom?
Hi Nick,
Since his father is “GOD” the kingdom was always his.
B’shem
YHVHHi EDJ
“For this Hagar is mount Sinai in Arabia, and answereth to Jerusalem which now is, and is in bondage with her children.
But [The New Jerusalem] (ref Rev.21-2-3) which is above is free, which is the (spiritual) mother of us all.” (Gal 4:25-26)“We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself,
and that wicked one toucheth him not.” (1 John 5:18)You did not find the scripture that says Hagar is a sinner? I didn’t ask for conjecture, metaphor or analogy I asked for scripture, it’s okay if you can’t find it, maybe you can present a better argument
Hi BD,
“For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;” (Romans 3:23)
Hagar is included in “all”, when we repent and are “born again” (John 3:3-5) we are birthed with God’s HolySpirit.
“We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself,
and that wicked one toucheth him not.” (1 John 5:18)”B’shem
YHVHSo no scripture that says Hagar is/was a sinner? It doesn’t matter if we all have sinned it only matters who practices sin and once again did Jesus sin? Paul wrote this letter is there some reason he didn’t say “except Jesus”?
Romans 5:12-15
12 Therefore, just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned–
13 for until the Law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed when there is no law
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
15 But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the manySin came through Adam and the grace of God came through the Second Adam.
How many sins did Adam commit before sin and death came into the world.
How many sins did Jesus commit?
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come.
I thought the entire point was somehow Jesus stopped the reign of death but the scripture you chose say that death did not reign after Moses, so If Adam brought sin and death into the world whatever type of death it brought did not reign after Moses. So what defeated the reign of death?
If death did not reign after Moses then there was no death penalty to be paid by Jesus…So how is it said Jesus defeated death at the cross when it wasn’t reigning even when he was born according to the scriptures.
Why do you say opinion when it is not my opinion, t8 gave the scripture but we as believers of God have an obligation
2 Timothy 2:15 Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.So should I try to please you or please God?
Hi BD,
You gave up following him when you chose another teacher and another set of instructions.
Now you try to judge God and the scriptures.
How strong are you?
I thought the entire point was somehow Jesus stopped the reign of death but the scripture you chose say that death did not reign after Moses
Good question. I think it is referring to the Law of Moses though, which was still in effect when Jesus came among us.
So Adam brought in sin and death, and Moses brought in the Law which imputed sin, and Jesus came to allow forgiveness of that sin.
That is what I see when I read that whole scripture in its context. I don’t think it is saying Moses own life, but his ministry which carried on beyond his natural life.
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