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- January 14, 2012 at 6:48 pm#272318mikeboll64Blocked
Quote (jammin @ Jan. 14 2012,11:21) the lordship of abraham and david was different to christ.
did you know that mike? can you compare the lordship of the father or christ to abraham and david?
Lord means “master”, jammin. Different lords are masters over different amounts of people. For instance, Abraham was only lord over his own household. David was lord over the entire nation of Israel. Jesus is Lord over all creation. And the God of Jesus is Lord over all of creation – INCLUDING Jesus.But David was the Lord of Israel at the same time God was the Lord of Israel. Does that mean David WAS God?
Quote (jammin @ Jan. 14 2012,11:21) i am not against that the father is christ's GOD.
Okay. And “God Most High” means the highest of ALL gods, right? If Jesus is a god who HAS a God of his own, then he can't possibly be the “Most High God”.Can you understand that? If Jesus HAS a God, then Jesus can't be God Almighty, because God Almighty doesn't have a God of His own. Jesus DOES.
Quote (jammin @ Jan. 14 2012,11:21) the father also said that the SON IS GOD!
No, the Father distinguishes Jesus as A god, not THE God. Only the Father OF Jesus is “THE God”.For example, the Father also calls Satan “god”……….
2 Kings 1:16
This is what the LORD says: Is it because there is no God in Israel for you to consult that you have sent messengers to consult Baal-Zebub, the god of Ekron?Baal-Zebub is Satan, jammin. God Himself referred to Satan as “the god of Ekron”. Now, because Yahweh called Satan “god”, does that mean Satan is “God Almighty”?
Because this is what you're claiming, right? You are saying that just because Jesus was among the MANY in scripture called by the title “god”, he must be God Almighty. And that just doesn't pan out scripturally – because we know that the Father alone is “God Most High”, and that Jesus is both Son and Servant OF “God Most High”.
Plus, if you're going to say that Jesus is God Almighty because God called him “god”, then you have to also say that Satan is God Almighty – because God also called him “god”.
January 14, 2012 at 7:06 pm#272320Ed JParticipantHi Mike,
“The most high” doesn't mean there are more gods? …it means he is in authority over all. (see 1Cor.15:28)
“And when all things shall be subdued unto Him, then shall the Son also himself be subject
unto HIM(YHVH) that put all things under Him, that God may be all in all.” (1Cor.15:28)See mike “him” is used three times, twice referring to Jesus, and once referring to YHVH.
…referencing two in one entities in one sentence, just like I was telling you about John 1:14.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgJanuary 14, 2012 at 7:11 pm#272322mikeboll64BlockedEd,
Yahweh is not the God OF gods for nothing. He couldn't logically be called the God of gods if there were no others called gods.
January 14, 2012 at 7:42 pm#272332Ed JParticipantHi Mike,
The Hebrew word אלהים ĔL-ō-Hêêm
doesn't carry the fullness of the meaning
as “GOD” in English does; AND YOU KNOW THIS!You'll likely bring this up again and again and again and again,
so don't be so hard on others who exhibit this same pattern.However, when God's Name, יהוה YÄ-hä-vā (YHVH), is used,
their is no doubt as to who we are talking about; GOD!God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgJanuary 14, 2012 at 8:20 pm#272345mikeboll64BlockedEd,
Shhhhh……. We're trying to have a discussion here. You are not helping anyone's cause, but just talking to talk.
January 15, 2012 at 1:29 am#272402SimplyForgivenParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 14 2012,05:21) Quote (SimplyForgiven @ Jan. 12 2012,22:48) Can you act mature for one second?
I doubt it. Pierre and I have pegged jammin at between 14 and 16 years old – judging on behavior.
You sure?
The boy sounds foreign to me.so a ignornat boy rather than imbecile of a man?
January 15, 2012 at 2:06 pm#272450jamminParticipantQuote (SimplyForgiven @ Jan. 15 2012,11:29) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 14 2012,05:21) Quote (SimplyForgiven @ Jan. 12 2012,22:48) Can you act mature for one second?
I doubt it. Pierre and I have pegged jammin at between 14 and 16 years old – judging on behavior.
You sure?
The boy sounds foreign to me.so a ignornat boy rather than imbecile of a man?
you brain is useless. dont talk too much. hahahahaha
study first.January 15, 2012 at 2:11 pm#272451jamminParticipantQuote (mikeboll64 @ Jan. 15 2012,04:48) Quote (jammin @ Jan. 14 2012,11:21) the lordship of abraham and david was different to christ.
did you know that mike? can you compare the lordship of the father or christ to abraham and david?
Lord means “master”, jammin. Different lords are masters over different amounts of people. For instance, Abraham was only lord over his own household. David was lord over the entire nation of Israel. Jesus is Lord over all creation. And the God of Jesus is Lord over all of creation – INCLUDING Jesus.But David was the Lord of Israel at the same time God was the Lord of Israel. Does that mean David WAS God?
Quote (jammin @ Jan. 14 2012,11:21) i am not against that the father is christ's GOD.
Okay. And “God Most High” means the highest of ALL gods, right? If Jesus is a god who HAS a God of his own, then he can't possibly be the “Most High God”.Can you understand that? If Jesus HAS a God, then Jesus can't be God Almighty, because God Almighty doesn't have a God of His own. Jesus DOES.
Quote (jammin @ Jan. 14 2012,11:21) the father also said that the SON IS GOD!
No, the Father distinguishes Jesus as A god, not THE God. Only the Father OF Jesus is “THE God”.For example, the Father also calls Satan “god”……….
2 Kings 1:16
This is what the LORD says: Is it because there is no God in Israel for you to consult that you have sent messengers to consult Baal-Zebub, the god of Ekron?Baal-Zebub is Satan, jammin. God Himself referred to Satan as “the god of Ekron”. Now, because Yahweh called Satan “god”, does that mean Satan is “God Almighty”?
Because this is what you're claiming, right? You are saying that just because Jesus was among the MANY in scripture called by the title “god”, he must be God Almighty. And that just doesn't pan out scripturally – because we know that the Father alone is “God Most High”, and that Jesus is both Son and Servant OF “God Most High”.
Plus, if you're going to say that Jesus is God Almighty because God called him “god”, then you have to also say that Satan is God Almighty – because God also called him “god”.
do not compare abraham and david to christ. can you read that abraham or david laid the foundations of the earth?christ is LORD, who laid the foundations of the earth. only GOD can do that. the LORD is GOD. again, they have the same nature phil 2:6
give me verses any person or created angels that have the same nature of GOD. i dont need your opinion. give me a verse mike.
also mike do not compare satan to christ as GOD.
again, christ laid the foundation of the earth. (heb 1:10)
that's what the bible says . believe it or not hahahahahathe heavens are the works of christ's hands. hahahahaha
david, abraham and satan cant do that. hahahahaha
January 15, 2012 at 2:33 pm#272453mikeboll64BlockedHi jammin,
Hebrews 1:10 refers to the Father. He is the one called the God OF Jesus in 1:9.
Does God Most High have a God of His own? YES or NO?
January 15, 2012 at 3:02 pm#272457jamminParticipantread it mike. i do not need your opinion.
heb 1:10 refers to the son. and i can give you many translations. read the context mike. hahahahhaagain, i do not need your opinion. read it. hahahahahaha
January 15, 2012 at 3:16 pm#272459mikeboll64Blockedjammin,
Does God Almighty have a God of His own? YES or NO?
January 15, 2012 at 3:19 pm#272460jamminParticipantbefore i answer your question, answer mine first. you said in heb 1:10 it refers to the father. then read it mike.
you are just always making conclusions. hahahahaha
wahahahahahahha:Dbelieve it or not mike, Christ laid the foundation of the earth and the heavens are made of his own hands. hahahahaha
January 15, 2012 at 3:52 pm#272466mikeboll64BlockedNo jammin,
You THINK it refers to Jesus, but Jesus is often listed as someone OTHER THAN the One who laid the foundations of the earth. In fact, you are trying to use Hebrews 1:10 to say Jesus laid the foundations of the earth. But at the same time, you are ignoring Hebrews 1:1-2;
In the past God spoke to our forefathers through the prophets at many times and in various ways, 2 but in these last days he has spoken to us by his Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the universe.You can see from the above that GOD spoke to us THROUGH many prophets, the most recent of which was His Son, Jesus.
See jammin? Jesus is not God Himself, but one of the many prophets THROUGH WHOM God spoke.
Verse 2 teaches us that it was this same GOD who made the universe; and that Jesus was the one THROUGH WHOM He did this.
Do you see it? ONE of the TWO people mentioned spoke to us and made the universe. The OTHER of the TWO people mentioned is the one THROUGH WHOM God did these things.
I'll remind you of the words of Tertullian:
He who creates is one, and he through whom the thing is created is another.So you can keep insisting that Jesus is the one who created, and I can keep showing you even more scriptures that list Jesus as someone OTHER THAN the One who created. (I have 5 more of them saved on my computer right now, and I'm happy to go through each one of them with you.)
Nor is there any scripture at all that mentions our “Creators”, as if we have more than one of them.
So since 1:10 doesn't specifically mention whether Paul is speaking of the Father or Jesus, the REST of the scriptures indicate that he must be speaking of the Father, or else scripture will contradict itself.
Now, it's your turn:
jammin, does God Almighty have a God of His own? YES or NO?January 15, 2012 at 4:02 pm#272468jamminParticipanti dont need your opinion mike. it does not say in verse 10 that the father laid the foundations of the earth.
it is just your opinion! hahahahlet the bible speak
HEB 1:10 THE MESSAGE
And again to the Son,
You, Master, started it all, laid earth's foundations,
then crafted the stars in the sky.again mike, this is the third time. you said it refers to the father. but the bible said it refers to the SON!
again mike, read in heb 1:10 that it refers to the father.
no need for opinion. just readi it. hahahahahaha
January 15, 2012 at 4:45 pm#272476mikeboll64Blockedjammin,
The words “again to the Son” are not even in the Greek text. Those words are added by English Trinitarian translators trying to FORCE the scripture to teach what they WANT it to teach.
Please comment on the Hebrews 1:1-2 info I shared with you.
Oh, and also answer this question you've been avoiding:
Does God Almighty have a God of His own? YES or NO?January 15, 2012 at 4:49 pm#272477jamminParticipantagain mike. this is the fourth time.
what is the use of greek if you dont understand the context. you are just always making excuses if you cant read your OPINION IN THE VERSE HAHAHAHAHA.again mike, read in heb 1:10 that it refers to the father. ill answer your question, if you admit that you cant read in heb 1:10 that it refers to the father and you will accpt that you are a false teacher. hahahahahah.
January 15, 2012 at 5:09 pm#272482mikeboll64BlockedQuote (jammin @ Jan. 15 2012,09:49) what is the use of greek if you dont understand the context.[
I've already shown the the “context” of WHO did the creating, and THROUGH WHOM that One created.Here is another of the many examples in scripture:
Acts 17
24 “The God who made the world and everything in it is the Lord of heaven and earth and does not live in temples built by hands. 25 And he is not served by human hands, as if he needed anything, because he himself gives all men life and breath and everything else. 26 From one man he made every nation of men, that they should inhabit the whole earth; and he determined the times set for them and the exact places where they should live. 27 God did this so that men would seek him and perhaps reach out for him and find him, though he is not far from each one of us. 28 ‘For in him we live and move and have our being.’ As some of your own poets have said, ‘We are his offspring.’29 “Therefore since we are God’s offspring, we should not think that the divine being is like gold or silver or stone—an image made by man’s design and skill. 30 In the past God overlooked such ignorance, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent. 31 For he has set a day when he will judge the world with justice by the man he has appointed. He has given proof of this to all men by raising him from the dead.”
jammin, look at verse 24. This whole passage is about the ONE God who made the heavens, the earth, and EVERYTHING in them.
And in verse 31, Paul refers to the one THROUGH WHOM this ONE God will judge the world. So once again, you can see a CLEAR distinction BETWEEN the One who created all things, and the one through whom that One will judge the world.
Look at the words I supersized in verse 31, jammin. The word “HE” refers to the God who made all things, and the word “HIM” refers to someone OTHER THAN that God who made all things.
THAT, my friend, is the CONTEXT in which you should be reading Hebrews 1:10. MY interpretation doesn't CONTRADICT other scriptures, while YOUR interpretation does.
Quote (jammin @ Jan. 15 2012,09:49) ill answer your question, if…………
IF? And since you know that you'll just keep on insisting that Heb 1:10 is about Jesus and not the Father, you think you'll never have to answer my question? Is that it, jammin?How about you just answer a simple YES or NO question instead? It should be easy for you, if your doctrine truly is what the scriptures teach, right?
Does God Almighty have a God of His own? YES or NO?
January 16, 2012 at 1:42 am#272569jamminParticipantmike dont jump to other verses. hahahaha
ill explain that to you later. you said in heb 1:10 it refers to the father
this is the fifth time ill ask you
hahahhaahread it mike. hahahahahahaha
let the bible speak.I DO NOT NEED YOUR OPINION. READ IT! CAN YOU READ IT OR NOT??
January 16, 2012 at 2:05 am#272579mikeboll64Blockedjammin,
Does “read it” mean, “Find a translation where the translator ADDED to the scriptures and put 'Father' in the verse where it wasn't in the Greek text”?
If that's what “read it” means, then I don't believe I'll be able to find a translation like that. Nor would I bother to quote it if I did find it, knowing that words were added to the text.
I only wish you felt the same way about the translations you're always quoting, where men doctor the scriptures by adding words that aren't even in the original.
But apparently, you're okay with doctored scriptures, as long as they doctor them to say what you want them to say.
And if you don't want me jumping to other scriptures, then address my post on Hebrews 1:1-2. Right in the very same book where you're claiming JESUS created all things, the second verse says that GOD created THROUGH His prophet Jesus.
Deal with that, okay?
January 16, 2012 at 2:12 am#272583jamminParticipantthis is the sixth time.
can you read it mike or not in heb 1:10 that it refers to the father??
if you cant read then accept it. admit that you are a false teacher.
again ill answer your question if you admit that you are a false teacher.
you said it refers to the father in heb 1:10.
let the people know how you twist the word of GOD. hahahaha
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