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Hi Everyone,
I believe there is evidence to suggest this is true…
Here is one such example (1 Corinthians 14:27):
“If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three,
and that by course; and let one interpret.” (1 Corinthians 14:27)On the face value context: we see that Shaool is referring to Church protocol
with regard to speaking in tongues. No-one understands, then someone interprets. <– simple enoughBut I believe there is an even deeper truth to this verse. Consider this verse
itself as a Prophetic Utterance form the “HolySpirit” that needs interpretation.
I believe the deeper meaning is about the bible itself. The English “AKJV Bible”.AKJV Bible interpretation…
“If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two (Hebrew, Aramaic),
or at the most by three (Greek), and that by course;
and let one (AKJV Bible) interpret.” (1 Cor 14:27).Do a word search in Strong’s Concordance on the word “interpret”
and you will see that it means “to Translate”. Now if you think
this interpretation is all washed up, consider this verse:“The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth,
purified seven times. 7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt
preserve them from this generation for ever.”(Psalms 12:6-7)The words “purified seven times” is the key PROOF this interpretation is true.
God’s word certainly needed no purification, but the English translation SURE DID!____________
God bless
Ed JHere is a second witness (Isaiah 28:11) to the interpretation of the verse I gave.
“For with stammering lips and another tongue will he speak to this people.” (Isaiah 28:11)
(1) First: Let’s at the face value context of this verse. “this people” – what “People”?
I believe this people are the Hebrew speaking people (I believe most would agree).(2) Next: “another tongue” – could be a reference to Greek, as the New Testament was written in Greek.
This makes sense.(3) But there is another answer that fits the bill as well. Consider English speaking Christians.
One interpretation does not preclude the other. Both can be true! We know the English speaking
world is BY FAR the leading tongue that is witnessing to the unbelieving Hebrew speaking people
that “YA-shu-a” is indeed their Messiah. So that is the first example. And here is more PROOF…“In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.” (2 Cor 13:1)
1 First witness: Psalm 12:6-7
2 Second witness: Isaiah 28:113 Also Consider 2 Corinthians 13:1
“In the mouth of two (Hebrew, Aramaic,) or three witnesses
(Greek) shall every word be established.” (2 Corinthians 13:1)____________
God bless
Ed JProclaimer……God’s word is purified seven times, are there not “seven Spirits” of God? each Spirit Produces it’s own “cognisity”.
Jesus has been given the seven Spirits of God and is therefore able to judge and rule by them.
Rev 1:4 , Rev 3:1, Rev 4:5,
Rev 5:6…..And I beheld and lo, in the midst of the throne and of the four beastm and in the midst of the elders, stood a Lamb as if it were slain, having seven horns (powers) and seven eyes, which are the seven Spirits of God sent forth in all the earth.
God’s words are tried by those seven Spirits of God , Proclaimer.
Peace and love to you and yours……….gene
Prophecy about the AKJV Bible
“If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two (Hebrew, Aramaic),
or at the most by three (Greek), and that by course; and let one (AKJV Bible) interpret.” (1 Cor 14:27).These verses are [prophetically] about the “AKJV Bible” !
“In the mouth of two (Hebrew, Aramaic,) or three witnesses
(Greek) shall every word be established.” (2 Corinthians 13:1)“The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth,
purified seven times. 7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt
preserve them from this generation for ever.”(Psalms 12:6-7)
The words “purified seven times” is the key PROOF this interpretation is true.
God’s word needed no purification, but the English translation SURE DID!____________
God bless
Ed JDoes a Bible verse carry more than one meaning? I believe the answer is “YES”
as this verse (2 Corinthians 13:1) is clearly prophetic about “The Bible” !“In the mouth of two (Hebrew, Aramaic,) or three witnesses
(Greek) shall every word be established.” (2 Corinthians 13:1)And to further this: (1 Cor 14:27) is prophetically about the AKJV Bible in specific:
“If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two (Hebrew, Aramaic), or
at the most by three (Greek), and that by course; and let one (AKJV Bible) interpret.”
(1 Corinthians 14:27).“The words of the LORD are pure words: as silver tried in a furnace of earth,
purified seven times. 7 Thou shalt keep them, O LORD, thou shalt
preserve them from this generation for ever.” (Psalms 12:6-7)The words “purified seven times” is the key PROOF this interpretation is true.
God’s word needed no purification, but the English translation SURE DID!____________
God bless
Ed J“The Lord gave the word: great was the company of those that published it.” (Psalms 68:11)
In the context of this verse it is apparent
that God give orders and others repeat and follow them.
But there is a greater truth to this verse as well (as previously shown above)The greater truth is: “The Word” (he gives) is “The Bible”!
“My word be that goeth forth out of my mouth: it shall not return unto me void, but it shall
accomplish that which I please, and it shall prosper in the thing whereto I sent it.” (Isaiah 55:11)____________
God bless
Ed JThere are prophecies that have more than one fulfillment. “out of Egypt have a I called my son” refers to both the nation of Israel being lead out by Moses as well as Joseph and Mary and Jesus returning to live in Galilee
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