- This topic is empty.
- Posts
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 18 2011,13:31) Now that's what I'm talking about Ed! Someone finally putting their money where their mouth is! Good for you! 
In beginning, the logos was. And the logos was with THE theos, and the logos was theos.
That's how the Greek of John 1:1 breaks down, which leaves two points for you to ponder:
1. The word “WITH” in this sentence makes it very clear that TWO persons are being discussed – not just one.
2. The two beings who are called “theos” are distinguished from each other by the definite article “the”. One of them is “THE theos”, while the other is just “theos”.
(3)Now Ed, will you acknowledge the fact that the indefinite article “a” was not used in the Greek language? YES or NO?
(4)Will you acknowledge the fact that over 6000 times in the scriptures, English scholars have added the word “a” into the scriptures because the meaning in English depends upon it? YES or NO?
More to come after you answer these first two questions.
mike
Hi Mike,1) It could be two aspects of one Entity.
In the beginning was Mike's Mind,
and Mike's mind was with Mike,
and mike's mind was mike.2) And Mike's mind was with the mike,
and Mike's mind was mike.3) Acknowledged
4) No
Can't wait.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Sep. 18 2011,06:18) Hi Mike, I can name one: adding the indefinite article to John 1:1,
as this would indicate there are two different Gods.
Did Jesus ever say he was a god: yes or no?
Hi Mike,You haven't answered this question.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgedj
Quote 1) It could be two aspects of one Entity.
In the beginning was Mike's Mind,
and Mike's mind was with Mike,
and mike's mind was mike.2) And Mike's mind was with the mike,
and Mike's mind was mike.Now ,why would the master of the universe and creation talk about his guts or anything else of his parts,he is spirit is he not ?
would that question have any thing to do with the reconciliation of men with him ??
Because what John is explaining is about the Christ ,about the fulfillment of the words that God has given US trough the prophets by his holy spirit ,so can you connect any of your questions to mine ??
Pierre
Quote (terraricca @ Sep. 18 2011,15:58) edj Quote It could be two aspects of one Entity.
In the beginning was Mike's Mind,
and Mike's mind was with Mike,
and mike's mind was mike.And Mike's mind was with the mike,
and Mike's mind was mike.(1)Now ,why would the master of the universe and creation talk about his guts or anything else of his parts,he is spirit is he not ?
(2)would that question have any thing to do with the reconciliation of men with him ??
(3)Because what John is explaining is about the Christ ,about the fulfillment of the words that God has given US trough the prophets by his holy spirit ,(4)so can you connect any of your questions to mine ??
Pierre
Hi Pierre,Good questions!
1) Do you believe that the “HolySpirit” is part of God?
2) To wit, that God(HolySpirit) was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath
committed unto us The Word of reconciliation (which was God's HolySpirit). (2Cor.5:19)Eph.4:4-6 There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord,
one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all, who
is above all, and through all, and in you all.“YHVH” ↔ “God”…………………………………..(Rom. 1:20)
“Christ”(77) = “And Father”(77)…………………..(Coloss.2:9)
“Body”(46) = “of all”(46)……………………………(Matt.10:29)
“Witness”(109) = “in you all”(109)…………………….(Acts 17:29)3) John 1:1 and John 1:14 refers to “The Word” being part of Jesus.
4) Sure, see point #1.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
(LINK to the thread THAT PROVES GOD’s EXISTENCE)Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:37)
1) It could be two aspects of one Entity.
In the beginning was Mike's Mind,
and Mike's mind was with Mike,
and mike's mind was mike.
Ed, something cannot BE a particular thing and be WITH that same thing. This is just common sense Ed. If Mike's mind was “with” Mike, then Mike's mind WASN'T Mike. The fact that you used an apostrophe followed by the letter “s” proves that you understand this thought. If you say “Mike's, then you are indicating, not Mike himself, but a possession OF Mike.Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:37)
2) And Mike's mind was with the mike,
and Mike's mind was mike.
Again, see point #1 about “possession”. Also, why would I sometimes be called THE mike, and other times just mike? Are you purposely just posting things you know are nonsense to avoid the truth of the matter, Ed?
Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:37)
3) Acknowledged
Good. Then you know that each and every time you see the English word “a” in the scriptures, it was NOT in the Greek or the Hebrew, but was added in by English translators to make sense of the scripture, right?Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:37)
4) No
Well, you can either take my word for it, or go through the scriptures and count how many “a's” have been added. If I remember right, it was 6127 times in the KJV according to Blue Letter Bible. I just tried to check again, but it wouldn't let me search for “a” anymore. Anyway, the number is unimportant, as long as you know that every time you see “a”, it was added into the scripture.mike
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:03) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:37)
1) It could be two aspects of one Entity.
In the beginning was Mike's Mind,
and Mike's mind was with Mike,
and mike's mind was mike.
Ed, something cannot BE a particular thing and be WITH that same thing. This is just common sense Ed. If Mike's mind was “with” Mike, then Mike's mind WASN'T Mike. The fact that you used an apostrophe followed by the letter “s” proves that you understand this thought. If you say “Mike's, then you are indicating, not Mike himself, but a possession OF Mike.Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:37)
2) And Mike's mind was with the mike,
and Mike's mind was mike.
Again, see point #1 about “possession”. Also, why would I sometimes be called THE mike, and other times just mike? Are you purposely just posting things you know are nonsense to avoid the truth of the matter, Ed?Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:37)
3) Acknowledged
Good. Then you know that each and every time you see the English word “a” in the scriptures, it was NOT in the Greek or the Hebrew, but was added in by English translators to make sense of the scripture, right?Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:37)
4) No
Well, you can either take my word for it, or go through the scriptures and count how many “a's” have been added. If I remember right, it was 6127 times in the KJV according to Blue Letter Bible. I just tried to check again, but it wouldn't let me search for “a” anymore. Anyway, the number is unimportant, as long as you know that every time you see “a”, it was added into the scripture.mike
Hi Mike,1) So if someone asks you “what were you thinking, Mike”.
Since is was only your mind thinking and not the entire you,
have you ever told them that is was your mind thinking and not
the entire you?2) No, I'm trying to help you see the truth of the matter.
3) Yes, to “TRY TO” make sense of the scripture “TO OTHERS”.
4) Your catching on: it was only the number of times that “A” was added in the Scriptures that was in question.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:04) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:40) Did Jesus ever say he was a god: yes or no?
No.
Hi Mike,Then why would you teach this is as doctrine?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Sep. 18 2011,23:56) Quote (terraricca @ Sep. 18 2011,15:58) edj Quote It could be two aspects of one Entity.
In the beginning was Mike's Mind,
and Mike's mind was with Mike,
and mike's mind was mike.And Mike's mind was with the mike,
and Mike's mind was mike.(1)Now ,why would the master of the universe and creation talk about his guts or anything else of his parts,he is spirit is he not ?
(2)would that question have any thing to do with the reconciliation of men with him ??
(3)Because what John is explaining is about the Christ ,about the fulfillment of the words that God has given US trough the prophets by his holy spirit ,(4)so can you connect any of your questions to mine ??
Pierre
Hi Pierre,Good questions!
1) Do you believe that the “HolySpirit” is part of God?
2) To wit, that God(HolySpirit) was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath
committed unto us The Word of reconciliation (which was God's HolySpirit). (2Cor.5:19)Eph.4:4-6 There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord,
one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all, who
is above all, and through all, and in you all.“YHVH” ↔ “God”…………………………………..(Rom. 1:20)
“Christ”(77) = “And Father”(77)…………………..(Coloss.2:9)
“Body”(46) = “of all”(46)……………………………(Matt.10:29)
“Witness”(109) = “in you all”(109)…………………….(Acts 17:29)3) John 1:1 and John 1:14 refers to “The Word” being part of Jesus.
4) Sure, see point #1.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
(LINK to the thread THAT PROVES GOD’s EXISTENCE)
edjwe have to get you to understand that the holy spirit is not God but of God not the same thing ,
God is spirit so we do not see spirits and we do not see the words spoken by God ,unless they are written down on something and that we can read it ,right ?
but his written word was given to us by people with ex stream
righteousness,and worthy of those words spoken by Angels,or by God trough dreamsand it is because our thirst of righteousness and need to know God our father that we are attracted to him like a magnet,
but what are those words ? those are the WILL(s) of God ,the things he likes and the thing he do not ,the things he want US to do and the result of it ,
so the holy spirit is the WILL of God that was expressed in words to us ,and so like Christ fulfilled them in our soul and action,just as Christ did in the position of the Messiah and son of man and son of God,and it is in this way that we are with the holy spirit in us ,because it is Gods will that guides us trough his will (spirit )
Pierre
Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,15:53) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:04) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:40) Did Jesus ever say he was a god: yes or no?
No.
Hi Mike,Then why would you teach this is as doctrine?
God bless
Ed J
Are you for real, Ed? Is your scriptural understanding based ONLY on the words Jesus actually spoke? Jesus never said the words, “I am the Son of the Most High God”, but we know from other scriptures that he is, right?God Himself foretold through Isaiah that Jesus would be called “mighty god”. Aren't the words of YHWH Himself good enough for you?
Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,15:51)
1) So if someone asks you “what were you thinking, Mike”.
Since is was only your mind thinking and not the entire you,
have you ever told them that is was your mind thinking and not the entire you?
Ed, do we say “Mike mind” or “Mike's mind”? The apostrophe – s tells the whole story. It tells us that Mike's mind is not Mike himself, but A POSSESSION OF MIKE. If you cannot understand this very simple rule of grammar, then I've gone as far as I can with you. And if you are not adept enough to understand that simple rule of grammar, then YOU are in no position to make a claim about the “a god” translation of John 1:1.Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,15:51)
3) Yes, to “TRY TO” make sense of the scripture “TO OTHERS”.
Perhaps you could show me a scripture where the added “a” should have been left out of the KJV – since you apparently don't need their help?Ed, I'm going to show you a quote from 25 Greek experts about John 1:1…………..
From NETNotes:
Or “and what God was the Word was.” Colwell’s Rule is often invoked to support the translation of θεός (qeos) as definite (“God”) rather than indefinite (“a god”) here. However, Colwell’s Rule merely permits, but does not demand, that a predicate nominative ahead of an equative verb be translated as definite rather than indefinite. Furthermore, Colwell’s Rule did not deal with a third possibility, that the anarthrous predicate noun may have more of a qualitative nuance when placed ahead of the verb.The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God (this is ruled out by 1:1b, “the Word was with God”)……..
This TRINITARIAN information tells you that there are THREE possibilities for the translation of 1:1,
1. the god (or: “God” with a capped “G”)
2. a god
3. godAll THREE of those translations are faithful to the Greek grammar in that verse. Do you see from the last sentence that these 25 Greek scholars only rule out ONE of the THREE possibilities? They say that because of the words, “the Word was WITH God”, the possibility that the Word was the PERSON OF GOD is ruled out. (Ed, it was YOUR version that was ruled out.) Which leaves only TWO possibilities left, Ed. One is that the Word was “godkind”, but not THE God; and the other is that the Word was A god that was not THE God.
I can list at least four more well respected experts in the Greek language that also agree “a god” is a completely possible translation. Three of those four scholars are even Trinitarians, who would like nothing more than the “a god” possibility to vanish into thin air. But they are still honest enough to admit that it IS a possibility. Would you like to see their words, Ed?
All I want you to get from this is that even TRINITARIAN scholars admit the grammatical possibility of “a god” in John 1:1. So you can't possibly use that verse as an example of “Blatant Corruption in the NWT”.
Do you have another verse in mind that the NWT got wrong? Because John 1:1 is not one of them.
Mike! I find it so ridiculous to take any Scripture like Deut. 6:4 out of context….
New King James Version (NKJV)
Deu 6:4 “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD [is] one! [fn]King James Version (KJV)
Deu 6:4 “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD [is] one! [fn]New Living Translation (NLT)
Deu 6:4 “Listen, O Israel! The LORD is our God, the LORD alone. [fn]New International Version (NIV)
Deu 6:4 Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one.English Standard Version (ESV)
Deu 6:4 “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one.Young's Literal Translation (YLT)
Deu 6:4 `Hear, O Israel, Jehovah our God [is] one Jehovah;It shows us that Jehovah is one Jehovah, one LORD in all capital letters…. LORD is instead of Jehovah…. said this before…. in our footnotes of the Ryie Study Bible it says that the trainslators used LORD because they didn't want to take Gods name in vain….and Kathi. it does say so…. I believe Georg….Peace Irene
Hey Irene,
Don't tell anyone, but Kathi dealt her own doctrine the death blow the other night. You know how she says Jesus is “Jehovah the Son”, and he is the “Lord” part of Jehovah. And the Father is “Jehovah the Father” and the “God” part of Jehovah?
Well………she herself posted this scripture to me last week:
Matthew 11:25
At that time Jesus said, “I praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have hidden these things from the wise and learned, and revealed them to little children.Ooops! This scripture has Jesus calling THE FATHER the Lord of heaven and earth. So much for her theory about one “Lord Jehovah” and one “God Jehovah”, eh?
Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,10:35) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,15:53) Quote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 19 2011,14:04) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 17 2011,22:40) Did Jesus ever say he was a god: yes or no?
No.
Hi Mike,Then why would you teach this is as doctrine?
God bless
Ed J
Are you for real, Ed? Is your scriptural understanding based ONLY on the words Jesus actually spoke? Jesus never said the words, “I am the Son of the Most High God”, but we know from other scriptures that he is, right?God Himself foretold through Isaiah that Jesus would be called “mighty god”. Aren't the words of YHWH Himself good enough for you?
Hi Mike,In the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established. (Matt.18:16)
I have produced “THREE WITNESSES”; YHVH, Jesus, and another; what else do you have?
I don't see the indefinite article used in that verse, do you have anything else? (1Thess.5:21)Luke 1:35 And the angel answered and said unto her, The HolySpirit shall come upon thee,
and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that
holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.John 9:35-37 Jesus heard that they had cast him out; and when he had found him, he said unto him,
Dost thou believe on the Son of God? He answered and said, Who is he, Lord, that I might believe on him?
And Jesus said unto him, Thou hast both seen him, and it is he that talketh with thee.John 10:36 Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world,
Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?Matt 27:43 He trusted in God; let him deliver him now,
if he will have him: for he said, I am the Son of God.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,11:04) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,15:51)
1) So if someone asks you “what were you thinking, Mike”.
Since is was only your mind thinking and not the entire you,
have you ever told them that is was your mind thinking and not the entire you?
Ed, do we say “Mike mind” or “Mike's mind”? The apostrophe – s tells the whole story. It tells us that Mike's mind is not Mike himself, but A POSSESSION OF MIKE. If you cannot understand this very simple rule of grammar, then I've gone as far as I can with you. And if you are not adept enough to understand that simple rule of grammar, then YOU are in no position to make a claim about the “a god” translation of John 1:1.Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 19 2011,15:51)
3) Yes, to “TRY TO” make sense of the scripture “TO OTHERS”.
Perhaps you could show me a scripture where the added “a” should have been left out of the KJV – since you apparently don't need their help?Ed, I'm going to show you a quote from 25 Greek experts about John 1:1…………..
From NETNotes:
Or “and what God was the Word was.” Colwell’s Rule is often invoked to support the translation of θεός (qeos) as definite (“God”) rather than indefinite (“a god”) here. However, Colwell’s Rule merely permits, but does not demand, that a predicate nominative ahead of an equative verb be translated as definite rather than indefinite. Furthermore, Colwell’s Rule did not deal with a third possibility, that the anarthrous predicate noun may have more of a qualitative nuance when placed ahead of the verb.The construction in John 1:1c does not equate the Word with the person of God (this is ruled out by 1:1b, “the Word was with God”)……..
This TRINITARIAN information tells you that there are THREE possibilities for the translation of 1:1,
1. the god (or: “God” with a capped “G”)
2. a god
3. godAll THREE of those translations are faithful to the Greek grammar in that verse. Do you see from the last sentence that these 25 Greek scholars only rule out ONE of the THREE possibilities? They say that because of the words, “the Word was WITH God”, the possibility that the Word was the PERSON OF GOD is ruled out. (Ed, it was YOUR version that was ruled out.) Which leaves only TWO possibilities left, Ed. One is that the Word was “godkind”, but not THE God; and the other is that the Word was A god that was not THE God.
I can list at least four more well respected experts in the Greek language that also agree “a god” is a completely possible translation. Three of those four scholars are even Trinitarians, who would like nothing more than the “a god” possibility to vanish into thin air. But they are still honest enough to admit that it IS a possibility. Would you like to see their words, Ed?
All I want you to get from this is that even TRINITARIAN scholars admit the grammatical possibility of “a god” in John 1:1. So you can't possibly use that verse as an example of “Blatant Corruption in the NWT”.
Do you have another verse in mind that the NWT got wrong? Because John 1:1 is not one of them.
Hi Mike,I'm only interested in the words of someone that I can respond back to;
but thanks for those postings for those who may be interested in 'those opinions'.Since you asked: here's another…
1Cor.12:27-28 Now ye are the body of Christ, and members in particular.
And God hath set some in the church, first apostles, secondarily prophets,
thirdly teachers, after that miracles, then gifts of healings, helps, governments, diversities of tongues.N.W.T.: 1Cor.12:27-28 Now YOU are Christ's body, and members individually.
And God has set the respective ones in the congregation, first, apostles; second, prophets;
third, teachers; then powerful works; then gifts of healings, helpful services, abilities to direct, different tongues.God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (mikeboll64 @ Sep. 20 2011,11:04) Perhaps you could show me a scripture where the added “a” should have been left out of the KJV – since you apparently don't need their help?
Hi Mike,Here is one: the indefinite article is NOT NEEDED between is and Spirit (but is “IS” needed)…
God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth. (John 4:24)God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (terraricca @ Sep. 20 2011,10:25) Quote (Ed J @ Sep. 18 2011,23:56) Quote (terraricca @ Sep. 18 2011,15:58) edj Quote It could be two aspects of one Entity.
In the beginning was Mike's Mind,
and Mike's mind was with Mike,
and mike's mind was mike.And Mike's mind was with the mike,
and Mike's mind was mike.(1)Now ,why would the master of the universe and creation talk about his guts or anything else of his parts,he is spirit is he not ?
(2)would that question have any thing to do with the reconciliation of men with him ??
(3)Because what John is explaining is about the Christ ,about the fulfillment of the words that God has given US trough the prophets by his holy spirit ,(4)so can you connect any of your questions to mine ??
Pierre
Hi Pierre,Good questions!
1) Do you believe that the “HolySpirit” is part of God?
2) To wit, that God(HolySpirit) was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them; and hath
committed unto us The Word of reconciliation (which was God's HolySpirit). (2Cor.5:19)Eph.4:4-6 There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; One Lord,
one faith, one baptism, One God and Father of all, who
is above all, and through all, and in you all.“YHVH” ↔ “God”…………………………………..(Rom. 1:20)
“Christ”(77) = “And Father”(77)…………………..(Coloss.2:9)
“Body”(46) = “of all”(46)……………………………(Matt.10:29)
“Witness”(109) = “in you all”(109)…………………….(Acts 17:29)3) John 1:1 and John 1:14 refers to “The Word” being part of Jesus.
4) Sure, see point #1.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
(LINK to the thread THAT PROVES GOD’s EXISTENCE)
edjwe have to get you to understand that the holy spirit is not God but of God not the same thing,
God is spirit so we do not see spirits and we do not see the words spoken by God ,unless they are written down on something and that we can read it ,right ?
but his written word was given to us by people with ex stream
righteousness,and worthy of those words spoken by Angels,or by God trough dreamsand it is because our thirst of righteousness and need to know God our father that we are attracted to him like a magnet,
but what are those words ? those are the WILL(s) of God ,the things he likes and the thing he do not ,the things he want US to do and the result of it ,
so the holy spirit is the WILL of God that was expressed in words to us ,and so like Christ fulfilled them in our soul and action,just as Christ did in the position of the Messiah and son of man and son of God,and it is in this way that we are with the holy spirit in us ,because it is Gods will that guides us trough his will (spirit )
Pierre
Hi PR,God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth. (John 4:24)
Since God is Spirit and the “HolySpirit” is Spirit are they two different spirits according to you?
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgedj
Quote Hi PR, God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth. (John 4:24)
Since God is Spirit and the “HolySpirit” is Spirit are they two different spirits according to you?
God bless
Ed Janswer ;YES
is your soul your spirit ,? sure your spirit comes out of your soul but it is not you,got it
Pierre
Quote (terraricca @ Sep. 20 2011,15:55) edj Quote Hi PR, God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth. (John 4:24)
Since God is Spirit and the “HolySpirit” is Spirit are they two different spirits according to you?
God bless
Ed J(1)answer ;YES
(2)is your soul your spirit ,? (3)sure your spirit comes out of your soul but it is not you,got it
Pierre
Hi PR,1) God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them. (2Cor 6:16)
Is this verse referring to the “HolySpirit” or the Spirit who is God;
and how can you be sure which one when you say they are two?2) No.
3) My soul and my spirit are both me. And my mind is me too.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.orgQuote (Ed J @ Sep. 20 2011,23:28) Quote (terraricca @ Sep. 20 2011,15:55) edj Quote Hi PR, God is Spirit: and they that worship him must worship in spirit and in truth. (John 4:24)
Since God is Spirit and the “HolySpirit” is Spirit are they two different spirits according to you?
God bless
Ed J(1)answer ;YES
(2)is your soul your spirit ,? (3)sure your spirit comes out of your soul but it is not you,got it
Pierre
Hi PR,1) God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them. (2Cor 6:16)
Is this verse referring to the “HolySpirit” or the Spirit who is God;
and how can you be sure which one when you say they are two?2) No.
3) My soul and my spirit are both me. And my mind is me too.
God bless
Ed J (Joshua 22:34)
http://www.holycitybiblecode.org
edj2Co 6:16 What agreement is there between the temple of God and idols? For we are the temple of the living God. As God has said: “I will live with them and walk among them, and I will be their God, and they will be my people.”
this I Christ .
so your spirit is you ? and as you grow you are changing ,into you ,and evolve as you go ,and all what you say are pieces of you that you left behind you with other people ?
see in my case my spirit is of me and as I live on I change for the better and I pray that people forgive me for some of thing I have said to them ect….
and re check your answers 2 and 3 it seems not right ,
Pierre
- You must be logged in to reply to this topic.
